Question on rank-nullity theorem

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SarahER
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View attachment 3493

So my question on this is: Why is the basis (0, 1, -1) because the dim is 1?
 
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  • Worked solution text: linear map g from R^3 to P_2(t), g((a,b,c)) = a + (b+c)t + at^2; kernel found by setting a = 0, b+c = 0, a = 0, giving basis {(0,1,-1)}; rank-nullity gives dim(Im g) = 2, example basis {1+t^2, t}.
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SarahER said:
View attachment 3493

So my question on this is: Why is the basis (0, 1, -1) because the dim is 1?
Hi Sarah, and welcome to MHB!

If the vector $(a,b,c)$ satisfies $a=0$ and $b+c=0$, then $c=-b$ and the vector is equal to $(0,b,-b) = b(0,1,-1).$ So all such vectors are scalar multiples of $(0,1,-1)$. Thus the single vector $(0,1,-1)$ forms a basis for the kernel of $g$, which therefore has dimension 1.
 
Opalg said:
Hi Sarah, and welcome to MHB!

If the vector $(a,b,c)$ satisfies $a=0$ and $b+c=0$, then $c=-b$ and the vector is equal to $(0,b,-b) = b(0,1,-1).$ So all such vectors are scalar multiples of $(0,1,-1)$. Thus the single vector $(0,1,-1)$ forms a basis for the kernel of $g$, which therefore has dimension 1.

So, is it 1 dimensional because b = -c?