Prove Corollary of Rank-Nullity theorem

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a corollary of the Rank-Nullity theorem in the context of linear transformations between finite-dimensional vector spaces. The original poster is exploring the conditions under which a linear transformation is injective and surjective.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand the implications of injectivity and surjectivity in relation to the dimensions of the kernel and image of the transformation. They consider assuming injectivity to explore a contradiction and express uncertainty about the relationship between the kernel and the image.

Discussion Status

Participants are engaging in a back-and-forth exploration of the implications of the Rank-Nullity theorem. Some guidance has been offered regarding the relationship between the dimensions of the kernel and image, and how this relates to the surjectivity of the transformation. Multiple interpretations of the implications are being discussed.

Contextual Notes

There is an ongoing examination of the definitions and properties of injective and surjective functions in the context of finite-dimensional vector spaces, as well as the assumptions being made about the dimensions of the spaces involved.

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Homework Statement


Prove:
Let [tex]\tau \in L(V,W)[/tex], where dim(V) = dim(W) < infinity. Then [tex]\tau[/tex] is injective iff it is surjective.


Homework Equations


L(V,W) is the set of all linear transformations from V to W.

1. Any complement of ker(t) is isomorphic to im(t)
2. dim(ker(t)) + dim(im(t)) = dim(V)


The Attempt at a Solution



I'm pretty lost in starting this.
I know it is surjective iff im(t) = W
I know it is injective iff ker(t) = {0}

Should I assume its injective but not surjective (to move towards a contradiction)?

And maybe I don't understand the concept of an isomorphism but if:
[tex]im(\tau) = W[/tex] and
[tex]ker(\tau)^{c} \approx im(\tau)[/tex]
then how does the ker(t)^c relate to W?
 
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You can prove this by only looking at the formula dim(ker(t))+dim(im(t))=dim(V).

Assume that t is injective. As you stated, this implies that ker(t)={0}. Thus dim(ker(t))=0.
So, what does this imply in the above formula?
 
that implies dim(im(t)) = dim(V) = dim(W)

that doesn't necessarily imply though that im(t) = W

am I just not thinking about it enough?
 
That's correct. But since [tex]im(t)\subseteq W[/tex] and dim(im(t))=dim(W) (as proven), then this DOES imply that im(t)=W.

In general, if you have two finite-dimensional spaces V and W such that [tex]V\subseteq W[/tex] and dim(V)=dim(W), then V=W!
 
Ah ! okay, that makes perfect sense

thanks for the help
 

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