Question on the SG (Stern-Gerlach) Spin experiment

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the Stern-Gerlach (SG) experiment, which demonstrates the behavior of silver atoms in an inhomogeneous magnetic field. Participants clarify that the magnetic field must be inhomogeneous to observe spin deflection, as a homogeneous field would yield no deflection. The positioning of the north (N) and south (S) magnetic components affects the deflection of particles with different spin states, confirming that spin-up and spin-down particles respond differently to the magnetic field. The experiment's results are fundamentally tied to the configuration of the magnetic field, which influences the average measurement of spin.

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arkantos
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During a SG experiment, the components N and S of the magnetic field are placed at the exact distance from the beam of particle?(or with precise approximation) What would happen if for example S is placed a little more distant from the beam of particle than N? Will we observe more deflection toward N? Or the quantum property of spin is not influenced by the position of the two source?
 
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I have no idea what you are talking about. SG? There are not two magnetic fields 0 there is only one.
 
Vanadium 50 said:
I have no idea what you are talking about. SG? There are not two magnetic fields 0 there is only one.

My bad, I expressed myself miserably. I'm talking about the Stern-Gerlach experiment.
I attach here a picture.
 

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If you move the magnets, you will change the field configuration, and in general change the silver beams' response to it.
 
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ok, so what behaviour we expect? In particular I would like to know if the change of field configuration, intended as distance of N and S components from the silver beams, will affect the average measure of spin we obtain.
I mean, If the N component is closer to the silver beam than S component, we still observe a 50% spin distribution?
 
arkantos said:
ok, so what behaviour we expect? In particular I would like to know if the change of field configuration, intended as distance of N and S components from the silver beams, will affect the average measure of spin we obtain.
I mean, If the N component is closer to the silver beam than S component, we still observe a 50% spin distribution?

Why don't you first explain what happens in the usual SG experiment and why?
 
For what I understood, silver atoms are sent through an inhomogeneuos magnetic field. It must be inhomogeneus, because if it was homogeneous we don't observe deflection at all, right? Which also means that an inhomogeneous field is the fundamental condition for the observation of a particle spin, right?
In the case of SG experiment,let's say that N is more intense than S. A particle with spin down will be deflected toward N, while a particle with spin up will be deflected toward S.
 
arkantos said:
For what I understood, silver atoms are sent through an inhomogeneuos magnetic field. It must be inhomogeneus, because if it was homogeneous we don't observe deflection at all, right? Which also means that an inhomogeneous field is the fundamental condition for the observation of a particle spin, right?
In the case of SG experiment,let's say that N is more intense than S. A particle with spin down will be deflected toward N, while a particle with spin up will be deflected toward S.

Okay, so the basic principle is that spin-up and spin-down behave differently when subjected to an inhomogeneous magnetic field. And the the SG apparatus thereby results in a wavefunction that is a superposition of two spatial components that are coupled to the up-down spin components.

In what way is this dependent on the particle passing exactly half-way between the magnets?
 
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PeroK said:
Okay, so the basic principle is that spin-up and spin-down behave differently when subjected to an inhomogeneous magnetic field. And the the SG apparatus thereby results in a wavefunction that is a superposition of two spatial components that are coupled to the up-down spin components.

In what way is this dependent on the particle passing exactly half-way between the magnets?
Yh... no way it is dependent.
I was trying somehow to reinterpret the notion of spin as a variable dependent from the particle position.
 
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