Question on velocity changes in free fall

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves a ping pong ball of mass 3g that is falling under the influence of gravity and air resistance. The scenario describes the ball's velocity after falling 1 meter and asks how far it will travel in the next 0.1 seconds, given that the air resistance is half its weight.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the calculation of forces acting on the ping pong ball, including weight and air resistance. There is an exploration of the relationship between acceleration, force, and mass, with some participants attempting to derive the acceleration based on the net force.

Discussion Status

Some participants have confirmed the original poster's analysis as a good approximation based on the provided information. There is ongoing clarification regarding the necessity of mass in the calculations and the implications of air resistance on acceleration.

Contextual Notes

Participants are examining the assumptions related to the forces acting on the ping pong ball, particularly the impact of air resistance on its acceleration. The discussion includes questioning the definitions and relationships between acceleration, force, and mass in the context of free fall.

Physiophysio
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Homework Statement


Assume a ping pong of mass 3g is falling, and it has fallen 1m and is now traveling at 5 m/s. If the air resistance force is half its weight, how far will it travel in the next 0.1 seconds. [Hint: you may want to sketch a velocity-time graph)

Homework Equations


Understanding that area under v-t graph is distance travelled.
F=ma
a=v/t
v=d/t

The Attempt at a Solution


So I thought:
If mass=3g, then weight is 0.03N
And as air resistance is half that, then the resultant force on the ping pong ball is 0.03-(0.03/2)=0.015N
Therefore, as F=ma,
0.015=m * a
But we know m=0.003 kg, so,
0.015=0.003 * a
a=5 metres per second per second.

Hence, in 0.1 seconds,

5 * 0.1 = 0.5 m/s

So the velocity of the ping pong ball increases by 0.5 m/s in the next 0.1 seconds.
And we know initial velocity was 5 m/s, so it increased to 5.5 m/s in 0.1 seconds.

So on a velocity-time graph, this forms a trapezium shape, and you find the area of that trapezium to find the distance the ping pong ball has traveled in 0.1 seconds:

[ (5+5.5)/2 ] * 0.1 = 0.525 m.

So the ping pong ball travels 525 centimetres (or 0.525 metres) in the next 0.1 seconds.

Is that right?

Thanks :)
 
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Physiophysio said:

Homework Statement


Assume a ping pong of mass 3g is falling, and it has fallen 1m and is now traveling at 5 m/s. If the air resistance force is half its weight, how far will it travel in the next 0.1 seconds. [Hint: you may want to sketch a velocity-time graph)

Homework Equations


Understanding that area under v-t graph is distance travelled.
F=ma
a=v/t
v=d/t

The Attempt at a Solution


So I thought:
If mass=3g, then weight is 0.03N
And as air resistance is half that, then the resultant force on the ping pong ball is 0.03-(0.03/2)=0.015N
Therefore, as F=ma,
0.015=m * a
But we know m=0.003 kg, so,
0.015=0.003 * a
a=5 metres per second per second.

Hence, in 0.1 seconds,

5 * 0.1 = 0.5 m/s

So the velocity of the ping pong ball increases by 0.5 m/s in the next 0.1 seconds.
And we know initial velocity was 5 m/s, so it increased to 5.5 m/s in 0.1 seconds.

So on a velocity-time graph, this forms a trapezium shape, and you find the area of that trapezium to find the distance the ping pong ball has traveled in 0.1 seconds:

[ (5+5.5)/2 ] * 0.1 = 0.525 m.

So the ping pong ball travels 525 centimetres (or 0.525 metres) in the next 0.1 seconds.

Is that right?

Thanks :)
Hello Physiophysio. Welcome to PF !

That looks like it's as good an approximation as you can get with the given information.

Very good analysis.
 
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Yes. (You don't actually need the mass. You know the acceleration will be g/2.)
 
SammyS said:
Hello Physiophysio. Welcome to PF !

That looks like it's as good an approximation as you can get with the given information.

Very good analysis.
Thanks :)
 
haruspex said:
Yes. (You don't actually need the mass. You know the acceleration will be g/2.)
Could you please explain why that is, because, yes, I see how a=5 which is g/2, but how does that come about? Is it because, in free fall with no air resistance and only the weight, a=g, but now air resistance is half of weight, so a would be a/2 which is equal to g/2?
Or is that logic wrong? Thanks for replying!
 
Physiophysio said:
so a would be a/2 which is equal to g/2?
If a is defined as the acceleration it undergoes, a is still a, but is now g/2, yes.
 
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