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This is ridiculous.
I can calculate a statstical frequency f(x) = n(x) / N ≈ 0.9 for these experiments.
I can calculate p(x) = 0.9 approximating f(x) for all past and future experiments.
I works perfectly. Everybody agrees that p(x) is the probability to find "x", which can be derived from some formalism. Now some people ask me what I am doing exactly. I explain all the details of the polarization and how the apparatus works. Fine. I explain that I calculate |<x|ψ>|2 = 0.9. Fine? No, one guy from the mathematical faculty asks me why a scalar product should be something like a probability. I have to admit that I have no idea, but I can prove that it works (I have to prove that the scalar product has all properties he expects for a probability). OK, some hard work, but eventually he agrees that it's a probability. Then comes mfb and tells me that it's not a probability; he cannot explain what else p(x) could be and he cannot explain why it behaves as a probability but is something different (what?)
So my question to you is: why is p(x) - which has all properties we expect for a probability - both mathematically and FAPP - not a probability? what is p(x) - if it's not a probability?
(remark: when talking about probabilities I do not mean that there is no other interpretation, I do not talk about a collapse, I do not assume anything like the eigenvalue-eigenvector link, I never talk about a "probability of a system S being in a state |x>"; all what I am saying is that there is a p(x) which acts as a probability of finding "x" simply b/c it allows us to calculate the statistical frequency f(x))
I can calculate a statstical frequency f(x) = n(x) / N ≈ 0.9 for these experiments.
I can calculate p(x) = 0.9 approximating f(x) for all past and future experiments.
I works perfectly. Everybody agrees that p(x) is the probability to find "x", which can be derived from some formalism. Now some people ask me what I am doing exactly. I explain all the details of the polarization and how the apparatus works. Fine. I explain that I calculate |<x|ψ>|2 = 0.9. Fine? No, one guy from the mathematical faculty asks me why a scalar product should be something like a probability. I have to admit that I have no idea, but I can prove that it works (I have to prove that the scalar product has all properties he expects for a probability). OK, some hard work, but eventually he agrees that it's a probability. Then comes mfb and tells me that it's not a probability; he cannot explain what else p(x) could be and he cannot explain why it behaves as a probability but is something different (what?)
So my question to you is: why is p(x) - which has all properties we expect for a probability - both mathematically and FAPP - not a probability? what is p(x) - if it's not a probability?
(remark: when talking about probabilities I do not mean that there is no other interpretation, I do not talk about a collapse, I do not assume anything like the eigenvalue-eigenvector link, I never talk about a "probability of a system S being in a state |x>"; all what I am saying is that there is a p(x) which acts as a probability of finding "x" simply b/c it allows us to calculate the statistical frequency f(x))
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