Quick Integral/Derivative question.

[synthetic.]

Is it always true that if; $$f(x) = f '(x)$$, then; $$-f (x) = - \int f '(x)$$ ?

That is, the negative of a derivative has an integral which is simply the negative of the original function? (ignoring arbitiary constants)

 

[adriank]

Yes - the right side is just $$f(x)$$, up to a constant.