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Quick Integral/Derivative question.

  1. Dec 1, 2008 #1
    Is it always true that if; [tex] f(x) = f '(x)[/tex], then; [tex]-f (x) = - \int f '(x) [/tex] ?

    That is, the negative of a derivative has an integral which is simply the negative of the original function? (ignoring arbitiary constants)
    Last edited: Dec 2, 2008
  2. jcsd
  3. Dec 1, 2008 #2
    Yes - the right side is just [tex]f(x)[/tex], up to a constant.
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