- #1

Eclair_de_XII

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- Suppose I wanted to prove that the Cartesian product of two compact sets is also a compact set. Does it suffice to simply state that the Cartesian product of the finite subcovers for the two sets covers the Cartesian product of the two sets?

I only took an introductory real analysis course, and that was during the spring of last year.

I apologize for the unnecessary and possibly stupid question, in any case.

I apologize for the unnecessary and possibly stupid question, in any case.