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lIllIlIIIl

- 7

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In my initial question, it was discussed how p<0 is different from something being impossible. Now, one-in-infinity is interesting to me because one is infinitely far from its potential maximum in this scenario, which I think makes it infinitely small. Is something that is infinitely small different from nothingness? If so, why and how, and if not, does that mean that every number is secretly zero?

I'm a high school freshman in Algebra 1, so my understanding of numbers is at an annoying point where I have questions about them but need to take at least a year of stats to understand the answers. Sorry if this is a stupid question, it just confuses me how being infinitely far from a maximum is different from being nothing. I hope this makes sense.