MHB Quotient remainder theorem problem.

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around proving that for any integer n, the expression 4 divides n(n^2 - 1)(n + 2). Participants highlight that this expression can be rewritten as the product of four consecutive integers: (n-1)n(n+1)(n+2). It is established that among any four consecutive integers, at least one must be divisible by 4, ensuring the product is divisible by 4. The Quotient Remainder Theorem is suggested as a method to analyze the divisibility by substituting n with 4q + r. The conclusion emphasizes that the product of these four integers will always be divisible by 4.
tmt1
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For any int $$n $$ , prove that $$ 4 | n (n^2 - 1) (n + 2)$$.

I know I have to use the quotient remainder theorem, but I'm wondering how to go about this problem.

I'm not sure how to phrase this problem in English.
 
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Couple of hints.

1. $n(n^2-1)(n+2)=(n-1)\, n \,(n+1)(n+2)$.
2. By the Quotient Remainder Theorem, there exist integers $q$ and $r$ such that $n=4q+r$, where $0\le r<4$.

Does this suggest anything to you?
 
Ackbach said:
Couple of hints.

1. $n(n^2-1)(n+2)=(n-1)\, n \,(n+1)(n+2)$.
2. By the Quotient Remainder Theorem, there exist integers $q$ and $r$ such that $n=4q+r$, where $0\le r<4$.

Does this suggest anything to you?

Right, so $(n-1)\, n \,(n+1)(n+2)$ is 4 consecutive integers. I get that if you take any arbitrary integer, if it is not divisible by 4, you can increment it by some int $c$ such that $0< c < 4$ and get an int that is divisible by 4.

Therefore, if you have 4 consecutive integers, one of those integers will be divisible by 4, and as a result the product of those 4 integers will be divisible by 4. I just don't know how to state or prove this formally.
 
tmt said:
Right, so $(n-1)\, n \,(n+1)(n+2)$ is 4 consecutive integers. I get that if you take any arbitrary integer, if it is not divisible by 4, you can increment it by some int $c$ such that $0< c < 4$ and get an int that is divisible by 4.

Therefore, if you have 4 consecutive integers, one of those integers will be divisible by 4, and as a result the product of those 4 integers will be divisible by 4. I just don't know how to state or prove this formally.

Why not plug in $4q+r$ in for $n$, and see what comes out in the wash?
 
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