Rank of composition of linear maps

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the rank of compositions of linear maps in a finite-dimensional vector space. Participants confirm that for linear maps $\phi_1, \ldots, \phi_n: V \rightarrow V$, the rank of their composition satisfies the inequality $\text{Rank}(\phi_1 \circ \ldots \circ \phi_n) \leq \min \{\text{Rank}(\phi_i) \mid 1 \leq i \leq n\}$. The inductive proof is established by showing that $\text{Rank}(f \circ g) \leq \text{Rank}(f)$ and $\text{Rank}(f \circ g) \leq \text{Rank}(g)$, leading to the conclusion that the rank of the composition is bounded by the minimum rank of the individual maps.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of linear maps and their properties
  • Familiarity with the concept of rank in linear algebra
  • Knowledge of induction as a proof technique
  • Basic comprehension of vector spaces and their dimensions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of linear transformations in detail
  • Learn about the rank-nullity theorem in linear algebra
  • Explore examples of linear map compositions and their ranks
  • Investigate the implications of rank in applications such as systems of linear equations
USEFUL FOR

Mathematics students, educators, and researchers interested in linear algebra, particularly those focusing on vector spaces and linear transformations.

mathmari
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Hey! :giggle:

Question 1:
Let $C$ be a $\mathbb{R}$-vector space, $1\leq n\in \mathbb{N}$ and let $\phi_1, \ldots , \phi_n:V\rightarrow V$ be linear maps.
I have shown by induction that $\phi_1\circ \ldots \circ \phi_n$ is then also a linear map.
I want to show now by induction that if $V$ is finite then $\text{Rank}(\phi_1\circ \ldots \circ \phi_n)\leq \min \{\text{Rank}(\phi_i)\mid 1\leq i\leq n\}$.

Base Case : For $n=1$ we have that $\text{Rank}(\phi_1)\leq \min \{\text{Rang}(\phi_1)\}$, so the equality holds.
Inductive Hypothesis : We suppose that it holds for $n=m$, so $\text{Rank}(\phi_1\circ \ldots \circ \phi_m)\leq \min \{\text{Rank}(\phi_i)\mid 1\leq i\leq m\}$. (IV)
Inductive Step : We want to show that it holds for $n=m+1$, i.e. that $\text{Rank}(\phi_1\circ \ldots \circ \phi_m\circ \phi_{m+1})\leq \min \{\text{Rank}(\phi_i)\mid 1\leq i\leq m+1\}$.
Does it hold in general that $\text{Im}(f\circ g)\subseteq \text{Im}(f)$ and $\text{Im}(f\circ g)\subseteq \text{Im}(g)$ and so we get $\text{Rank}(f\circ g)\leq \text{Rank}(f)$ and $\text{Rank}(f\circ g)\leq \text{Rank}(g)$ ?

:unsure:
 
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mathmari said:
Does it hold in general that $\text{Im}(f\circ g)\subseteq \text{Im}(f)$ and $\text{Im}(f\circ g)\subseteq \text{Im}(g)$ and so we get $\text{Rank}(f\circ g)\leq \text{Rank}(f)$ and $\text{Rank}(f\circ g)\leq \text{Rank}(g)$ ?
Hey mathmari!

I'm afraid not. (Shake)

Consider $f:v\mapsto e_1$ and $g:v\mapsto e_2$. Then $\text{Im}(f\circ g)\not\subseteq \text{Im}(g)$.
 
Klaas van Aarsen said:
I'm afraid not. (Shake)

Consider $f:v\mapsto e_1$ and $g:v\mapsto e_2$. Then $\text{Im}(f\circ g)\not\subseteq \text{Im}(g)$.

Ah ok.. But how can we continue then the inductive step? :unsure:
 
mathmari said:
Ah ok.. But how can we continue then the inductive step?
The rank of a function with a specific domain is the number of independent vectors in the image.
And the number of independent vectors in the image is at most the number of independent vectors in the domain. 🤔
 
Klaas van Aarsen said:
The rank of a function with a specific domain is the number of independent vectors in the image.
And the number of independent vectors in the image is at most the number of independent vectors in the domain. 🤔

But how do we use that? I got stuck right now. :unsure:
 
mathmari said:
But how do we use that? I got stuck right now.
Suppose $\operatorname{Rank}(f\circ g)>\operatorname{Rank}(g)$.
Then there must be more independent vectors in $(f\circ g)(V)$ than in $g(V)$.
But there can only be at most as many independent vectors in $f(g(V))$ as there are in $g(V)$.
Contradiction.
Therefore $\operatorname{Rank}(f\circ g)\le\operatorname{Rank}(g)$. 🤔
 
Klaas van Aarsen said:
Suppose $\operatorname{Rank}(f\circ g)>\operatorname{Rank}(g)$.
Then there must be more independent vectors in $(f\circ g)(V)$ than in $g(V)$.
But there can only be at most as many independent vectors in $f(g(V))$ as there are in $g(V)$.
Contradiction.
Therefore $\operatorname{Rank}(f\circ g)\le\operatorname{Rank}(g)$. 🤔

Ahh ok (Malthe)

And in general it holds that $\operatorname{Rank}(f\circ g)\le\operatorname{Rank}(f)$.

So we have that $\operatorname{Rank}(f\circ g)\le\operatorname{Rank}(f)$ and $\operatorname{Rank}(f\circ g)\le\operatorname{Rank}(g)$ and then we take the minimum? :unsure:
 
mathmari said:
And in general it holds that $\operatorname{Rank}(f\circ g)\le\operatorname{Rank}(f)$.

So we have that $\operatorname{Rank}(f\circ g)\le\operatorname{Rank}(f)$ and $\operatorname{Rank}(f\circ g)\le\operatorname{Rank}(g)$ and then we take the minimum?
Yep. (Nod)
 

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