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This is a basic question but I don't think I've ever seen anything like it before.
If Q(x) \ = \ b_0(x \ - \ a_1)(x \ - \ a_2)\cdot \ . \ . \ . \ \cdot (x \ - \ a_s)
then
\frac{P(x)}{Q(x)} \ = \ R(x) \ + \ \sum_{i=1}^s \frac{P(a_i)}{(x \ - \ a_i)Q'(a_i)}I just don't understand where the P(aᵢ) & Q'(aᵢ) come from, maybe it's just notation masking something obvious but idk... I can't really make sense of it.
If this doesn't make sense it's from page 12 of this.
If Q(x) \ = \ b_0(x \ - \ a_1)(x \ - \ a_2)\cdot \ . \ . \ . \ \cdot (x \ - \ a_s)
then
\frac{P(x)}{Q(x)} \ = \ R(x) \ + \ \sum_{i=1}^s \frac{P(a_i)}{(x \ - \ a_i)Q'(a_i)}I just don't understand where the P(aᵢ) & Q'(aᵢ) come from, maybe it's just notation masking something obvious but idk... I can't really make sense of it.
If this doesn't make sense it's from page 12 of this.