Reallllly dumb question about Feynman Parameters (and simplifying them)

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The discussion centers on simplifying Feynman parameters, specifically how to adjust integration limits when using the delta function. The example provided illustrates the transition from three to two integrals by integrating over z, leading to the new limit for y as 1-x. This adjustment is justified because the delta function constrains the integration to the plane defined by x+y+z=1, preventing x+y from exceeding 1. The conversation also touches on extending this reasoning to four parameters, suggesting a similar approach for setting integration limits. Understanding these limits is crucial for generalizing the method effectively.
Elwin.Martin
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I know the generalized formula for Feynman parameters, my problem is in simplifying.

What I mean is something like this:
Take the simplest 3 parameter equation
\frac{1}{ABC} = 2 \int_0^1 dx \int_0^1 dy \int_0^1 dz \frac{ \delta \left( 1-x-y-z \right)}{(xA+yB+zC)^3}
And you can take this and put move to two integrals by integrating over z, I understand that we use the delta function to get (xA+yB+(1-x-y)C)3 in the denominator of the new integrand...however, I don't understand why we now have:
2 \int_0^1 dx \int_0^{1-x} dy
I've done it out by hand to check it, so I know this is what we need...but why do we substitute in 1-x for the limit of integration?

This is probably a dumb question, but I need to know so I can generalize to four parameters.

Thanks for any and all help!
 
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Alright, so after drawing it by hand once...I feel like it has something to do with the shape of region the delta function sort of cuts out? We're realistically only integrating over a plane now, since the delta function assigns zero to everywhere except x+y+z=1, right? So our integration is really over just that plane...still failing from here though.
 
If y was allowed to be bigger than 1-x, then x+y would be bigger than 1. But x+y+z=1, and z is between 0 and 1. So x+y cannot be bigger than 1. Thus the upper limit on the y integral. (We could equally well first integrate over x from 0 to 1-y, and then over y from 0 to 1.)
 
Avodyne said:
If y was allowed to be bigger than 1-x, then x+y would be bigger than 1. But x+y+z=1, and z is between 0 and 1. So x+y cannot be bigger than 1. Thus the upper limit on the y integral. (We could equally well first integrate over x from 0 to 1-y, and then over y from 0 to 1.)

That makes sense.

So for four parameters would we have:
\int_0^1 dx \int_0^{1-x} dy \int_0^{1-x-y} dz ?
 
Bumping this, I would really like to know still...I feel like an idiot, but I sort of need to understand this.
 
Yes.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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