Reflexivity of L^p and its Implications for Integration

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Goklayeh
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Could someone confirm or refute the following statement?

[tex]f \in L^p\left(X, \mu\right) \: \Leftrightarrow \: \int_X{\lvert fg \rvert d\mu < \infty\: \forall g \in L^q\left(X, \mu\right)[/tex]

where [tex]1<p<\infty,\: \frac{1}{p}+\frac{1}{q}=1[/tex] and [tex](X, \mu)[/tex] is a measurable space (of course, the [tex](\Rightarrow)[/tex] is trivial by Holder inequality)

Thanks in advance!
 
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on Phys.org
It looks correct to me. From my recollection. Lp and Lq are adjoint, when p, q > 1 and 1/p + 1/q = 1.
 
For those values of p, Lp is reflexive. What can you infer from this?
 

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