Rel as a Category .... Awodey Section 1.4, Example 4, Pae 7 ....

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This discussion centers on understanding the category Rel as defined in Steve Awodey's "Category Theory (Second Edition)," specifically Section 1.4. Participants clarify the concept of the identity arrow within the category Rel, demonstrating that the identity arrow for a set A, denoted as 1_A, consists of all pairs (a, a) for each element a in A. The identity arrow is unique and can be represented as the union of specific functions, such as f_3, f_4, and f_5, which all map elements to themselves. The computation of the composition of arrows, particularly f_1 with 1_A, confirms that f_1 remains unchanged when composed with the identity arrow.

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I am reading Steve Awodey's book: Category Theory (Second Edition) and am focused on Section 1.4 Examples of Categories ...

I need some further help in order to fully understand some aspects of the definition of the category Rel ... ...

The definition of the category Rel ... reads as follows:View attachment 8387
I am having trouble fully understanding the definition of the identity arrow ...I will use an example to illustrate my problems ...Let the category $$\text{Rel}_1$$ consist of two sets $$A, B$$ where

$$A = \{ 1, 2, 3 \}$$

$$B = \{ 3, 4 \} $$

so ... two arrows, for example, may be $$f_1 : A \to B$$ where $$f_1 = \{ (1, 3), (1, 4), (3, 4) \}$$

and $$f_2 : A \to B$$ where $$f_2 = \{ (1, 3) \}$$
Now .. consider $$f_3 : A \to A$$ where $$f_3 = \{ (1, 1) \}$$

and $$f_4 : A \to A$$ where $$f_4 = \{ (2, 2) \}$$

and $$f_5 : A \to A$$ where $$f_5 = \{ (3, 3) \}$$ ... BUT ...... according to Awodey's definition these arrows are all equal to the identity arrow of A ...... the identity arrow is meant to be unique ... ?Does this mean $$f_3 = f_4 = f_5$$ ... ? ... but why and how are they equal ...
Can someone please clarify the above ... ?

Peter
 

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No, $1_A=\{(a,a) | a \in A \}$, that is all the pairs $(a,a)$ with $a \in A$

Thus $1_A=\{ (1,1), (2,2), (3,3) \}$

In your notation $1_A = f_3 \cup f_4 \cup f_5$

Now compute $f_1 \circ 1_A$.
 
steenis said:
No, $1_A=\{(a,a) | a \in A \}$, that is all the pairs $(a,a)$ with $a \in A$

Thus $1_A=\{ (1,1), (2,2), (3,3) \}$

In your notation $1_A = f_3 \cup f_4 \cup f_5$

Now compute $f_1 \circ 1_A$.

Thanks Steenis ... that solves that one ...

Now working on the computation you mentioned..

Thanks again for the help ...

Peter
 
steenis said:
No, $1_A=\{(a,a) | a \in A \}$, that is all the pairs $(a,a)$ with $a \in A$

Thus $1_A=\{ (1,1), (2,2), (3,3) \}$

In your notation $1_A = f_3 \cup f_4 \cup f_5$

Now compute $f_1 \circ 1_A$.
Hi Steenis ...You write:"... ... Now compute $f_1 \circ 1_A$ ... ... "

First ... define composition ...

If we are given two arrows $$f : A \to B$$ and $$g : B \to C$$ ...

... then ...

$$g \circ f = \{ \left \langle a, c \right \rangle \in A \times C \mid \exists \ b \ ( \left \langle a, b \right \rangle \in f \text{ and } \left \langle b, c \right \rangle \in g ) \} $$so, in particular, for $$f_1 : A \to B$$ and $$1_A : A \to A$$ we have ...

$$f_1 \circ 1_A = \{ \left \langle a, b \right \rangle \in A \times B \mid \exists \ x \ ( \left \langle a, x \right \rangle \in 1_A \text{ and } \left \langle x, b \right \rangle \in f_1 ) \}$$ ... ... ... ... ... (1)
Now ... showing informal working ... following (1) we have

$$\left \langle 1, 1 \right \rangle \in 1_A \text{ and } \left \langle 1, 3 \right \rangle \in f_1 \Longrightarrow \left \langle 1, 3 \right \rangle \in f_1 \circ 1_A $$ where $$x = 1$$$$\left \langle 1, 1 \right \rangle \in 1_A \text{ and } \left \langle 1, 4 \right \rangle \in f_1 \Longrightarrow \left \langle 1, 4 \right \rangle \in f_1 \circ 1_A$$ where $$x = 1$$$$\left \langle 3, 3 \right \rangle \in 1_A \text{ and } \left \langle 3, 4 \right \rangle \in f_1 \Longrightarrow \left \langle 3, 4 \right \rangle \in f_1 \circ 1_A$$ where $$x = 3$$Thus $$f_1 \circ 1_A = \{ \left \langle 1, 3 \right \rangle , \left \langle 1, 4 \right \rangle , \left \langle 3, 4 \right \rangle \}$$
Is the above computation correct?

Peter
 
Yes, correct, and why did you already expect this answer ?
 
steenis said:
Yes, correct, and why did you already expect this answer ?
Hmm ... not sure that i did expect it ...

Still reflecting on this ...

Peter***EDIT***

Oh! Obvious really ... because$$ f_1 \circ 1_A = f_1$$ ...

Peter
 
allright, $1_A$ is an identity arrow in Rel
 

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