Relation for Inner Product with States from a Complete Set

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the formal demonstration of a relation in quantum mechanics concerning inner products with momentum eigenstates and the implications of a complete set of states. The context includes theoretical aspects of quantum mechanics, particularly in relation to three-body scattering theory.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a relation from a book stating that the inner product <\Omega^{\pm}^{\dagger} \Psi_n|p> equals zero, leading to the conclusion that \Omega^{\pm}^{\dagger}|\Psi_n> = 0 due to the completeness of momentum eigenstates.
  • Another participant asks how a ket |ψ⟩ can be expressed in terms of the complete set of momentum states |p⟩.
  • A participant suggests the expression |\Psi⟩ = ∫ |p⟩⟨p|Ψ⟩ d𝑝 as a standard representation, seeking clarification on the initial inquiry.
  • Further, a participant questions what the implications are for |\Psi⟩ if ⟨p|Ψ⟩ is zero for all momentum states |p⟩.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants appear to be exploring the implications of the zero inner product and the completeness of states, but there is no consensus on the formal demonstration or the implications of the findings. The discussion remains open-ended with various interpretations and questions raised.

Contextual Notes

The discussion does not provide a formal proof or resolution to the claims made, leaving assumptions and dependencies on definitions unresolved.

tommy01
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Hi.

I've found the following relation (in a book about the qm 3-body scattering theory):

[tex]<\Omega^{\pm}^{\dagger} \Psi_n|p>= ... = 0[/tex]

where [tex]|p>[/tex] is a momentum eigenstate.
So it is shown, that the inner Product is zero. Then they conclude that [tex]\Omega^{\pm}^{\dagger}|\Psi_n> = 0[/tex] because the p-states form a complete set.

How can this formally be shown?

thanky you.
 
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First, something a little more general.

How is a ket [itex]\left| \psi \right>[/itex] expressed with respect to the complete set of states [itex]\left| p \right>[/itex]?
 
This isn't mentioned in the book. But i assume [tex]|\Psi>=\int |\mathbf{p}><\mathbf{p}|\Psi> d\mathbf{p}[/tex] as usual. Or what you mean?
thanks for the quick reply.
 
tommy01 said:
This isn't mentioned in the book. But i assume [tex]|\Psi>=\int |\mathbf{p}><\mathbf{p}|\Psi> d\mathbf{p}[/tex] as usual. Or what you mean?
thanks for the quick reply.

Yes.

Now, what is the only possibility for [itex]|\Psi>[/itex] if [itex]<\mathbf{p}|\Psi>[/itex] is zero for every [itex]\mathbf{p}[/itex]?
 
thanks a lot.
 

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