Renormalization - a dippy process - R. Feynman

  • #51
Buckeye said:
Hmmm,
That's strange. Does that mean that Feymann, in his 1985 book on QED, did not know that renormalization and lattice gauge theory in the 70s contradicted his writing in 1985, or was he still at odds with renormalization?
Feynman suspected that Quantum Electrodynamics did not make sense in a purely mathematical way. It is fantastic as a physical theory. Also, lattice gauge theory wasn't really around in the 1980s.

There is significant evidence that quantum electrodynamics doesn't make sense as a mathematical structure, unlike quantum chromodynamics which probably does make sense.
However this is a very technical issue.
 
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  • #52
Whoa ego!

vanesch said:
That's the *definition* of physics: how mathematics applies to observations of nature! If it has no mathematical underpinning, it is not physics. It is not possible to do physics without some form of mathematics. Now, that mathematics can be approximative, and one can use intuition instead of calculations, but it is still "mathematics". For instance, saying that "pressure rises with the amount of gas in a container" is still a mathematical statement (even though it is not an equation, it specifies something about the functional relationship between two quantities (real numbers).



Well, unfortunately, that IS science. Science is the confrontation of a theory (a set of hypotheses, with their logical, hence mathematical, deductions) with observations (hence some form of quantitative assessment).
You cannot confront these if there's not some form of mathematical relationship between quantities (even inprecise, as stated above). And if you cannot confront them, then the theory is "non-falsifiable" and hence "non-scientific".

It's the very definition of science.



No, you can use old mathematics too, with new hypotheses.



But that's about as interesting as saying that "you professional scribes should be willing to let us, who have never learned the alphabet or any grammar or vocabulary, also write our works of literary art...", in other words, you should also consider our meaningless scribbles on paper.

No, Wrong. I realize you have to have a least modest of confidence to tackle this mathematics but perhaps you should examine your way of expressing your ideas. Just because you put things in capital, by the way the rules say that is "shouting" and therefore rude, it isn't necessarily anymore true than when you write in lower case. Your judgment seems to be a little clouded by your occupation. None of you, or very small percentage, will even be able to conceive that notion. Back to the analogy. It's not that we haven't learned the alphabet or the grammar but that we haven't read Proust or Tolstoy yet. That doesn't mean we are illiterate. And furthermore your analogy fails again by calling what we write meaningless scribbles. Let me reminder you again that Einstein's theories were considered "meaningless scribbles" until he got lucky or should I say we got lucky and had it confirmed in a unlikely way in South America. Is the underlying idea here exclusivity? I'm beginning to wonder. Also the lecture about mathematics being the underpinning of physics is "silly" and a little condescending. My yellow lab "ginger" knows that. (She,s a pretty smart dog.) Please read a little more subtlety into the responses please.
 
  • #53
A profoundly empty response.

This thread is going nowhere. Closed.
 
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