Ridiculously difficult Newtonian physics problem

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Mason Pulinthanathu
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Homework Statement
Derive n expression for the time for an object to move in space from point a to b as a result of the gravitational force of another object
Relevant Equations
MmG/r^2=F | -MmG/r=PE| PE1+KE1=PE2+KE2
Handwritten physics problem: an object of mass m dropped from rest from point A at distance r1 from Earth's center, falling to point B at distance r; diagram shows Earth with radii r1 and r, and the formula t = r1^(3/2) / sqrt(2GM) times arccos(sqrt(r/r1)) plus sqrt(1 - r/r1) times sqrt(r/r1).
I have been trying out with this one for a long time with no luck getting the exact expression. I am pretty sure this is somehow related to Kepler's third law but unable to establish the connection and the integrals I get from energy conservation yield different results. Any ideas?
 
geekmohmmad said:
Homework Statement:: Derive n expression for the time for an object to move in space from point a to b as a result of the gravitational force of another object
Relevant Equations:: MmG/r^2=F | -MmG/r=PE| PE1+KE1=PE2+KE2

View attachment 257518I have been trying out with this one for a long time with no luck getting the exact expression. I am pretty sure this is somehow related to Kepler's third law but unable to establish the connection and the integrals I get from energy conservation yield different results. Any ideas?
This is quite a well known problem. What do you know about differential equations?

Conservation of energy should give you a differential equation to get you started.
 
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You're right, this is a ridiculously difficult problem.
It's a non-linear ODE whether you approach it from force, or from energy as post 2 suggests.
Wolfram Alpha gives you an answer for the force way. Ugly!
Then you have r(t) but you want t(r).
That's the best I can think of.
My sympathies!
 
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Since you are given the solution and are only asked to show it is correct, "all" you need to do is to demonstrate that it satisfies the differential equation and boundary conditions.
 
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Handwritten derivation on paper: energy conservation KE1 + PE1 = KE2 + PE2 with start from rest, leading to v = sqrt(2MG[1/r - 1/r1]), then dr/dt equals that expression, and an integral of dt from 0 to t equals 1/sqrt(2MG) times the integral of dr over 1/sqrt(1/r1 - 1/r) from r1 to r, with a question mark.

Thanks all for the responses. I think this the right path to derive it, but I am unable to solve this integral.
 
PeroK said:
This is quite a well known problem. What do you know about differential equations?

Conservation of energy should give you a differential equation to get you started.
Thank you for the response. I have a solid understanding of Calc 1 and can solve basic differential equations. Can you help me please with this integral?
Handwritten derivation of a falling-body energy problem: energy conservation starting from rest, leading to v squared = 2MG(1/r - 1/r1), then dr/dt, then the integral of dt equal to 1 over root 2MG times the integral of dr over root(1/r1 - 1/r), with a question mark beside it.
 
rude man said:
You're right, this is a ridiculously difficult problem.
It's a non-linear ODE whether you approach it from force, or from energy as post 2 suggests.
Wolfram Alpha gives you an answer for the force way. Ugly!
Then you have r(t) but you want t(r).
That's the best I can think of.
My sympathies!
I would be really thankful if you could send me the Wolfram Alpha solution. Thanks in advance.
 
geekmohmmad said:
I would be really thankful if you could send me the Wolfram Alpha solution. Thanks in advance.
You 'loved' my post #4 but did not act on it.
There's a fairly obvious trig substitution that makes the RHS of the expression for t much simpler. Differentiating that leads in a few lines to the energy equation. You can then reverse the process to see how the ODE can be solved.
 
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geekmohmmad said:
Thank you for the response. I have a solid understanding of Calc 1 and can solve basic differential equations. Can you help me please with this integral? View attachment 257578

You have:
$$\frac{dr}{dt} = -\sqrt{2GM(\frac 1 r - \frac 1 {r_1}) }= -\sqrt{2GM(\frac{r_1 - r}{rr_1})}$$
$$-\int_{r_1}^{r_2} \sqrt{\frac{rr_1}{r_1 - r}} dr =\int_0^{t_2}\sqrt{2GM}dt = t_2\sqrt{2GM}$$
Note that I've used ##r_2## as the final radius to avoid confusion with the variable ##r##.

The key to such integrals is to look for a suitable trig substitution. You might look first at ##r = r_1\cos \theta##, which works for an inverse cube law problem. That doesn't quite work here. Any inspiration?
 
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PeroK said:
You have:
$$\frac{dr}{dt} = \sqrt{2GM(\frac 1 r - \frac 1 {r_1}) }= \sqrt{2GM(\frac{r_1 - r}{rr_1})}$$
Shouldn't there be a negative sign in front of the radical? The radial distance ##r## is positive and ##\dfrac{dr}{dt}## must be negative since ##r## decreases with time. This means choosing the negative sign when taking the square root.
 
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kuruman said:
Shouldn't there be a negative sign in front of the radical? The radial distance ##r## is positive and ##\dfrac{dr}{dt}## must be negative since ##r## decreases with time. This means choosing the negative sign when taking the square root.
Very true. I was trying to adjust my solution to the OP's notation and forgot about that.
 
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PeroK said:
Very true. I was trying to adjust my solution to the OP's notation and forgot about that.
Thanks for the reply. Here what I've done. (Have no clue how to un-substitute or what to do after this!)
Handwritten-style derivation of an integral: the time integral from 0 to t1 of dt equals 1/sqrt(2GM) times the integral from r1 to r2 of -1 over sqrt(1/r - 1/r1) dr, then rewritten with substitution u = r1/r, du = -u^2/r1 dr, leading to integrals in sec(phi) and a result sin(2phi)/2 + phi evaluated at r2 and r1.
 
That doesn't look quite right. For example, ##1 - \frac{r_1}{r}## is negative, but you have it in a square root.

You are making things much more difficult than they need be.

I showed you how to simplify that expression with the square roots on the denominator. Also, you have used:
$$\frac 1 r = \frac 1 {r_1} \sec^2 \phi$$
Which is more simply written as:
$$r = r_1 \cos^2 \phi$$

I would start with the simplified expression in the integral I gave you:

PeroK said:
$$-\int_{r_1}^{r_2} \sqrt{\frac{rr_1}{r_1 - r}} dr =\int_0^{t_2}\sqrt{2GM}dt = t_2\sqrt{2GM}$$

And try the substitution ##r = r_1 \cos^2 \theta##. Or use ##\phi## is you prefer.