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**1. Homework Statement**

(i) Suppose that F is continuous on [a,b] and [tex]\int_a^b FG = 0[/tex] for all continuous functions G on [a,b]. Prove that F = 0.

(ii) Suppose now that G(a) = G(b) = 0. Does it again follow that F must be identically zero?

**2. Homework Equations**

Let P be any partition of [a,b]

Upper Darboux

[tex]U(F,P) = \sum_{k=0}^\n sSupF(x_k)(t_k - t_{k-1})[/tex]

Lower Darboux

[tex]L(F,P) = \sum_{k=0}^\n iInfF(x_k)(t_k - t_{k-1})[/tex]

F is integrable iff

inf U(F,P) = U(F) = L(F) = sup L(F,P)

**3. The Attempt at a Solution**

For (i) I argued the following.

Let G = F.

Clear H = F*F >= 0 and is continuous.

Let's say H(y) > 0.

So I can find an interval (y - c, y + c) because H is continuous, where H(x) > H(y)/2.

Clearly U(H,P) > H(y)/2*c

Which means U(H) >= H(y)/2*c > 0.

Thus F must be identically zero.

For (ii), I said it still needed to be identically zero, and I'm not certain how the argument needs to be changed. Perhaps if F was only nonzero very near a and b, but because of the continuity of F, wouldn't that still bee a problem?