 #1
breadlover98
 1
 1
 Homework Statement:

Consider the Kepler problem
$$m \ddot{\vec{r}} = \alpha \frac{\vec{r}}{r^3}, \quad \alpha = GMm$$
Another conserved quantity, called the RungeLenz vector, is given by
$$\vec{F}_L = \vec{p} \times \vec{L}  m \alpha \frac{\vec{r}}{r}$$
Now imagine the gravitational force is perturbed by another central force
$$\vec{F}' = f(r) \frac{\vec{r}}{r}$$
where ##f(r) \sim 1/r^3##. As a result of this, the Lenz vector is not conserved anymore. Hence, find:
$$\frac{\mathrm{d}\vec{F}_L}{\mathrm{d}{t}} = \dot{\vec{F}}_L$$
and discuss the effect of this perturbation on the motion.
 Relevant Equations:
 The given equations are included in the homework statement.
For the case that there is only a potential ##\sim 1/r##, I have already proven that the time derivative of the Lenz vector is zero. However, I'm not sure how I would "integrate" this perturbation potential/force into the definition of the Lenz vector (as it is directly defined in terms of the gravitational potential). Is there a more general/extended version of this definition or am I approaching this question wrong?