S-matrix structure of the lightest particle

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A lightest particle cannot decay into other particles, leading to a T-matrix amplitude of zero, as the S-matrix must equal one. This implies that the self-energy of the particle, denoted as \Pi(p^2=m^2), should also equal zero. However, if a different renormalization scheme is applied where \Pi(p^2=m^2) is non-zero, it raises questions about the validity of the S-matrix being equal to one. The discussion highlights that unitarity requires the imaginary part of the self-energy to be zero on-shell for the lightest particle, but if self-energy is non-zero, it could allow for a non-zero imaginary part. Ultimately, the physical mass of the particle is defined by the pole of its one-particle propagator.
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If you have a particle that is the lightest particle, then it cannot decay into other particles. As a consequence of this, its T-matrix amplitude on-shell should be zero, since the S-matrix is S=1+iT, and the amplitude for the particle to be found with the same quantum numbers and momentum is 1 since it can't decay, so T=0. The T-matrix in this case should be the self-energy of the particle. So you should always have \Pi(p^2=m^2)=0. But what if you choose a different renormalization scheme so that \Pi(p^2=m^2) \neq 0? Then the S-matrix doesn't seem like it can be equal to 1, since this is the lightest particle, so the T-matrix should always be real on-shell, so that S=1+imaginary number, and the amplitude of this is greater than 1.

Unitarity requires:

$$
- \text{Im} \, \Pi (i \leftarrow i)=\sum_n (2 \pi)^4 \delta^4(P_{ni})(\Pi_n \frac{1}{\rho^2})F (n \leftarrow i)^* F (n \leftarrow i)
$$

In this formula, n are all on-shell intermediate states of all possible particles, and \rho are normalization factors of these particles, and F are Feynman amplitudes. Since this is the lightest particle and can't decay, only when n=i, F \rightarrow -i \Pi(p^2=m^2) does the RHS contribute. This seems to imply that if the self-energy is not equal to zero on-shell, then the RHS is non-zero, so the imaginary part of the self-energy on the LHS can be non-zero on-shell. Is this correct?
 
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Of course, you also have to renormalize the wave function. The physical mass of the particle is always defined by the pole of the corresponding single-particle propagator (one-particle Green's function).
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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