MHB S3 Group Symmetry: $(xy)^2 \ne x^2y^2$ Example

  • Thread starter Thread starter Guest2
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Group Symmetric
Guest2
Messages
192
Reaction score
0
Problem: In $S_3$ give an example of two elements $x$ and $y$ such that $(xy)^2 \ne x^2y^2$.

Attempt: Consider the mapping $\phi: x_1 \mapsto x_2, x_2 \mapsto x_1, x_3 \mapsto x_3$ and the mapping $\psi: x_1 \mapsto x_2, x_2 \mapsto x_3, x_3 \mapsto x_1$. We have that the elements $\phi, \psi \in S_3$. We also have $x_1 (\phi \psi)^2 = x_1\phi \psi \phi \psi = x_3 \phi \psi = x_1.$ We also have that $\phi^2 = e$ and thus $ x_1 \phi^2 \psi^2 = x_1 \psi^2 = x_2 \psi = x_3$. Therefore $(\phi \psi)^2 \ne \phi^2 \psi^2$. Hence it's enough to take $x = \phi$ and $y = \psi$.

Is the above any good?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Guest said:
Problem: In $S_3$ give an example of two elements $x$ and $y$ such that $(xy)^2 \ne x^2y^2$.

Attempt: Consider the mapping $\phi: x_1 \mapsto x_2, x_2 \mapsto x_1, x_3 \mapsto x_3$ and the mapping $\psi: x_1 \mapsto x_2, x_2 \mapsto x_3, x_3 \mapsto x_1$. We have that the elements $\phi, \psi \in S_3$. We also have $x_1 (\phi \psi)^2 = x_1\phi \psi \phi \psi = x_3 \phi \psi = x_1.$ We also have that $\phi^2 = e$ and thus $ x_1 \phi^2 \psi^2 = x_1 \psi^2 = x_2 \psi = x_3$. Therefore $(\phi \psi)^2 \ne \phi^2 \psi^2$. Hence it's enough to take $x = \phi$ and $y = \psi$.

Is the above any good?

That looks good, although you should make it explicit that $\phi\psi$ is the mapping:

$x_1 \mapsto x_3$
$x_2 \mapsto x_2$
$x_3 \mapsto x_1$.

When you learn cycle notation, these kinds of problems will be much easier to write about.

(and yes, to show that two mappings $f,g:A \to B$ are unequal, it is enough to exhibit a single $a \in A$ such that $(a)f \neq (a)g$...in this case we have $A = B = \{x_1,x_2,x_3\}$).
 
Thread 'How to define vector field?'
Hello! In one book I saw that function ##V## of 3 variables ##V_x, V_y, V_z## (vector field in 3D) can be decomposed in a Taylor series without higher-order terms (partial derivative of second power and higher) at point ##(0,0,0)## such way: I think so: higher-order terms can be neglected because partial derivative of second power and higher are equal to 0. Is this true? And how to define vector field correctly for this case? (In the book I found nothing and my attempt was wrong...

Similar threads

  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
687
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
943
Replies
21
Views
1K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 26 ·
Replies
26
Views
678
  • · Replies 34 ·
2
Replies
34
Views
2K
  • · Replies 52 ·
2
Replies
52
Views
3K
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K