Sakurai, p. 59, Pr 1.6 - critique the proof

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the conditions under which the sum of two eigenkets of a Hermitian operator can also be considered an eigenket of that operator. The original poster questions the justification for their assertion regarding linearity and matching eigenvalues.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the conditions necessary for the sum of eigenkets to remain an eigenket, focusing on linearity and eigenvalue equality. Questions arise regarding the implications of orthonormality and the definitions of "matching" versus "identical" eigenvalues.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of the definitions and conditions required for the problem. Some participants have provided clarifications regarding terminology, while others are questioning the completeness of the original poster's reasoning.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of specifying conditions clearly and the potential implications of using different terminology related to eigenvalues. The discussion reflects a careful examination of assumptions and definitions within the context of quantum mechanics.

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Homework Statement


Suppose that |i> and |j> are eigenkets of some Hermitian operator. Under what condition can we conclude that |i> + |j> is also an eigenket of A? Justify your answer.

Homework Equations



It seems that all that is needed is for "A" to be a linear operator and for |i> and |j> to have the same eigenvalue. Justification:

A(u + v) = Au + Av (that's A's linearity at work)

Au = u[0]*u
Av = v[0]*v

If we have u[0] = v[0] (matching eigenvalues), then:
A(u + v) = u[0]*(u + v) = v[0]*(u + v)

...and thus:
A(u + v) = [some common scalar]*(u + v)

...meaning (u + v) is eigenstate of linear operator "A".

My question: qed?
 
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For the eigenkets that you are considering, what is < i | j > equal to?
 
kuruman said:
For the eigenkets that you are considering, what is < i | j > equal to?

If they are part of the same orthonormal basis, <i|j> ought to be equal to zero. I'll permit the assumption that since |i> and |j> have the same eigenvalues, they ought to be in the same basis.
 
Good. The problem is asking you under what conditions is the sum of two orthonormal eigenstates of A also an eigenstate of A? There is no "qed" here; qed implies that you need to show something. You need to specify the conditions and of course justify them. So what are the conditions and why? Your initial answer is not clear on that.
 
Last edited:
I'd have to say the necessary and possibly-sufficient reasons are 1) for those eigenstates to have matching eigenvalues and 2) for the operator A to be linear.

I said that before, but am I missing something? Or did my initial answer not clearly tout that as The Conditions? :-|

We seem to be in a most dangerous situation where I am convinced a possibly-wrong answer is irrefutably correct :-|
 
bjnartowt said:
I'd have to say the necessary and possibly-sufficient reasons are 1) for those eigenstates to have matching eigenvalues and 2) for the operator A to be linear.

Change "matching" to "identical" and you are correct. If A is the Hamiltonian, |i> and |j> would be degenerate states.
 
kuruman said:
Change "matching" to "identical" and you are correct. If A is the Hamiltonian, |i> and |j> would be degenerate states.

Oh, with the same energy eigenvalues. This question makes sense now.

Is there some subtle difference between "matching" and "identical" that I'm not aware of? I thought I could use the word "matching" in this case without dashing myself against some subtle technicality of a distinction. Perhaps not?


Thank you very much for your help and patience : )
 
bjnartowt said:
Oh, with the same energy eigenvalues. This question makes sense now.

Is there some subtle difference between "matching" and "identical" that I'm not aware of? I thought I could use the word "matching" in this case without dashing myself against some subtle technicality of a distinction. Perhaps not?


Thank you very much for your help and patience : )
There is no subtle difference, except that the usage that I have seen includes "identical" and (sometimes) "the same" but not "matching." Therefore, I was not sure how you understood "matching." If I and my spouse are wearing "matching" clothes, it means something different from "identical" which is different from "the same" clothes.
 
kuruman said:
There is no subtle difference, except that the usage that I have seen includes "identical" and (sometimes) "the same" but not "matching." Therefore, I was not sure how you understood "matching." If I and my spouse are wearing "matching" clothes, it means something different from "identical" which is different from "the same" clothes.

Oh, gotcha. I thought I missed a technicality, which I almost always do. I'm so bad with little details, and that just cost me a large amount of time over summer's research.

Thanks again : )
 

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