MHB Sequence of Intervals - Rudin, Theorem 2.38

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on Walter Rudin's Theorem 2.38 from "Principles of Mathematical Analysis," specifically addressing the proof's structure. A participant, Peter, questions why Rudin does not simplify the proof by stating that if \( m \) is a positive integer, then \( a_m \le b_m \) implies \( x \le b_m \). Another participant clarifies that Peter's reasoning is flawed because \( x \) is the supremum of \( E \), not the infimum, necessitating the use of the relationship \( a_n \le b_m \) for all \( m \) to establish that \( x \le b_m \) for each \( m \).

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  • Understanding of supremum and infimum concepts in real analysis
  • Familiarity with the definitions of upper bounds and sequences
  • Basic knowledge of mathematical proofs and logical implications
  • Experience with Walter Rudin's "Principles of Mathematical Analysis" and its notation
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the concept of supremum and infimum in detail
  • Review the properties of sequences and their bounds in real analysis
  • Examine other proofs in Rudin's text to understand proof structure
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Students of real analysis, mathematicians seeking clarity on proof techniques, and anyone studying Walter Rudin's "Principles of Mathematical Analysis."

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I am reading Walter Rudin's book, Principles of Mathematical Analysis.

Currently I am studying Chapter 2:"Basic Topology".

Although I can basically follow it, I am concerned that I do not fully understand the proof of Theorem 2.38.

Rudin, Theorem 2.38 reads as follows:https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/3789In the above proof we read the following:

" ... ... If $$m$$ and $$n$$ are positive integers then

$$a_n \le a_{m+n} \le b_{m+n} \le b_m$$

so that $$x \le b_m$$ for each $$m$$. ... ..."This appears to me to be true ... ... BUT ... ...

Why doesn't Rudin simply say the following:

"Let $$m$$ be a positive integer.

Then $$a_m \le b_m$$ ...

so that $$x \le b_m$$ for each $$m$$. "Since my statement is simpler than what Rudin says, I feel that I must be missing something and my analysis above must be wrong ...

Can someone point out why my proof is defective and thus clarify this issue?

Hope someone can help ... ...

Peter
 
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Peter said:
Why doesn't Rudin simply say the following:

"Let $$m$$ be a positive integer.

Then $$a_m \le b_m$$ ...

so that $$x \le b_m$$ for each $$m$$. "
Hi Peter,

The implication you have here is false. It would've been true if $x$ was the infimum of $E$ (since then $x \le a_m \le b_m$ for all $m$) but in fact $x$ is the supremum of $E$. He uses the necessary fact that for all $n$, $a_n \le b_m$ for all $m$ (notice here how $n$ is independent of $m$). With this, we know that for each $m$, $b_m$ is an upper bound for $E$. Hence, by definition of $x$, $x \le b_m$ for all $m$. Makes sense?
 

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