Series Convergence/Divergence (II)

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence or divergence of the series $$\sum^{\infty}_{n = 2} \frac{(-1)^n \ln(n)}{n}$$. Participants explore various methods and tests for determining the behavior of this alternating series, including L'Hospital's Rule, the Alternating Series Test (AST), and references to the Dirichlet Eta Function.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests applying L'Hospital's Rule to conclude that the series diverges, but this is challenged by another who states that L'Hospital's Rule is not applicable for series convergence.
  • Another participant argues that the series converges by applying the Lagrange Alternating Series Test (LAST), noting that the non-alternating part is decreasing for $x > e$.
  • A different participant attempts to use the limit of the terms to argue for convergence using the Alternating Series Test, stating that since the limit of the terms approaches zero, the series converges.
  • Another participant introduces the Dirichlet Eta Function and its derivative to support their claim of convergence, providing a more complex mathematical framework for the discussion.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There is no consensus on the convergence or divergence of the series. Participants present competing views and methods, with some arguing for convergence based on different tests and others suggesting divergence based on incorrect applications of rules.

Contextual Notes

Participants express uncertainty regarding the applicability of L'Hospital's Rule and the conditions under which the Alternating Series Test can be applied. There are also unresolved mathematical steps related to the Dirichlet Eta Function and its implications for the series in question.

shamieh
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Determine whether the following series converges or diverges and justify your answer.

$$\sum^{\infty}_{n = 2} \frac{(-1)^n ln(n)}{n}$$

So can't I just apply L'opitals to obtain $$\frac{1}{n}$$ which diverges because it is a alternating harmonic series, thus: converges?
 
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shamieh said:
Determine whether the following series converges or diverges and justify your answer.

$$\sum^{\infty}_{n = 2} \frac{(-1)^n ln(n)}{n}$$

So can't I just apply L'opitals to obtain $$\frac{1}{n}$$ which diverges because it is a alternating harmonic series, thus: diverges?

Not even close I'm afraid. L'Hospital's Rule is used to find the limit of a function, not anything to do with determining the convergence or divergence of a series.

This is an alternating series, so by LAST (Lagrange Alternating Series Test) the series will converge if the non-alternating part is decreasing.

Consider the function $\displaystyle \begin{align*} f(x) = \frac{\ln{(x)}}{x} \end{align*}$. We have $\displaystyle \begin{align*} f'(x) = \frac{x\left( \frac{1}{x} \right) - 1 \left[ \ln{(x)} \right] }{x^2} = \frac{1 - \ln{(x)}}{x^2} \end{align*}$. This will be negative for all $\displaystyle \begin{align*} x > e \end{align*}$, thereby showing that the function $\displaystyle \begin{align*} f(x) \end{align*}$ is decreasing for all $\displaystyle \begin{align*} x > e \end{align*}$.

This at least shows that $\displaystyle \begin{align*} \sum_{n = 3}^{\infty}{ \frac{(-1)^n \ln{(n)}}{n} } \end{align*}$ is convergent. If you add the extra term where $\displaystyle \begin{align*} n = 2 \end{align*}$, you will simply be adding two finite numbers, thereby still giving you something finite. So the series you have given is also convergent.
 
So I can't do this ? :

$$\sum^{\infty}_{n = 2} (-1)^n \frac{ln(n)}{n} = n\to\infty \frac{1/n}{1} = 0$$

now since $$\lim a_n = 0 $$ using AST , $$0 < \frac{1}{n+1} < 1/n$$ so the series converges using alternating series test?
 
shamieh said:
Determine whether the following series converges or diverges and justify your answer.

$$\sum^{\infty}_{n = 2} \frac{(-1)^n ln(n)}{n}$$

So can't I just apply L'opitals to obtain $$\frac{1}{n}$$ which diverges because it is a alternating harmonic series, thus: converges?

The series converges for the Leibnitz's criterion. Remembering the definition of the Dirichlet Eta Function...

$\displaystyle \eta(s) = - \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n}}{n^{s}} = (1 - 2^{1-s})\ \zeta(s)\ (1)$... where $\zeta(*)$ is the Riemann zeta function. Deriving (1) we obtain...

$\displaystyle \eta^{\ '}(s) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n}\ \ln n}{n^{s}} = 2^{1-s}\ \ln 2\ \zeta(s) + (1 - 2^{1-s})\ \zeta^{\ '} (s)\ (2)$

... and with a little of patience you can demonstrate that is $\displaystyle \eta^{\ '} (1) = \gamma\ \ln 2 - \frac{\ln^{2} 2}{2}$, where $\gamma = .5772...$ is the Euler's constant... Kind regards $\chi$ $\sigma$
 

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