JonF
- 621
- 1
If P(X) denotes the power set of X. Is |P(A)| = |P(B)| iff A=B true? If so, I have no idea how to prove the |P(A)| => |P(B)| iff A=B direction, so any hints would be great.
The discussion revolves around the relationship between the cardinalities of power sets and the equality of the original sets, specifically whether |P(A)| = |P(B)| implies A = B. Participants explore implications for finite and infinite sets and seek clarification on related concepts.
Participants express disagreement regarding the implications of power set cardinalities on the equality of original sets, with no consensus reached on the validity of the original statement or its implications for infinite sets.
Participants discuss the implications of the Continuum Hypothesis and the Singular Cardinal Hypothesis, indicating that the discussion may depend on these unresolved mathematical concepts.
CRGreathouse said:Does |P(A)| = |P(B)| imply |A| = |B| for infinite sets without the CH?
Why do you know that? That's false for most bijections [itex]\mathcal{P}(A) \rightarrow \mathcal{P}(B)[/itex].CrankFan said:the restriction of [tex]g[/tex] to the set [tex]A_s[/tex], is a bijection from [tex]A_s[/tex] to [tex]B_s[/tex]