JonF
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If P(X) denotes the power set of X. Is |P(A)| = |P(B)| iff A=B true? If so, I have no idea how to prove the |P(A)| => |P(B)| iff A=B direction, so any hints would be great.
CRGreathouse said:Does |P(A)| = |P(B)| imply |A| = |B| for infinite sets without the CH?
Why do you know that? That's false for most bijections [itex]\mathcal{P}(A) \rightarrow \mathcal{P}(B)[/itex].CrankFan said:the restriction of [tex]g[/tex] to the set [tex]A_s[/tex], is a bijection from [tex]A_s[/tex] to [tex]B_s[/tex]