Short question about L infinity

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SUMMARY

The function f(x) = |1/x| is not in L-infinity when the measurable set E includes the point x=0, as it lacks an essential supremum (esssup) on the interval (-1, 1). The discussion clarifies that while m(E) can be finite, the presence of x=0 in E prevents f(x) from being classified in L-infinity. An example provided illustrates that if E is defined as (-∞, -1) ∪ [0] ∪ (1, ∞), then f(x) can be in L-infinity due to the esssup being 1, as the set where |f(x)| > 1 has measure 0.

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futurebird
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I want to say that f(x) = |1/x| is in L-infinity(E) when m(E)<infinity because the function has and esssup on any measurable set, E. Even if E = (-1, 1) f(0) is not a problem since it is only one point...

But wait... what *is* the esssup for this function on (-1, 1)? I think it might not have one. This is why I'm confused.

:(
 
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You don't seem too confused to me. It doesn't have an esssup on (-1,1).
 
Ok. So then it's not in L-infinity when x=0 is in E.

(slowly this starts to make more sense...)
 
Not exactly. E could be (-oo, -1) union [0] union (1,oo) and it would be in Loo.
 
oh good point.
 
You could have f(x) = sin(x) except on the rationals where it is 1/x and anything at 0. This would have an esssup of 1 because the set of x where |f(x)| > 1 has measure 0.
 
Thanks, that's a good example to think about.
 

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