Show equation has exactly one root

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves demonstrating that the equation f(x)=3x-2+cos(πx/2)=0 has exactly one real root. The discussion centers around the application of the intermediate value theorem and Rolle's theorem in the context of continuous functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of the intermediate value theorem to establish the existence of a root and explore the implications of having two roots using Rolle's theorem. Questions arise regarding the behavior of the derivative f'(x) and its positivity across real numbers.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided clarifications regarding the mathematical expressions involved, particularly the behavior of the sine function and its implications for the derivative. There is an acknowledgment of the challenges faced by newer members in understanding the concepts.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of correctly interpreting the sine function's range and its relationship to the problem at hand. There is a mention of the original poster's confusion regarding the notation used in the equation.

darius
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The question is show that the equation f(x)=3x-2+cos(Piex/2)=0 has exactly one real root.
Using the intermediate value theorem f is continuous and f(o)=-1 and f(1)=1., the equation has one root. Supposing it has two roots a and b , and
a<b. Then f(a)=0=f(b). Using Rolle's theorem there is a number d in (a,b) such that f'(x)=3-(pie/2)(sin(piex/2))=0 has a root in (a,b). But this is impossible since after factoring sin(piex/2)=6/pie is always greater than zero for all real x. I am having problems with factoring. Why is 3-(pie/2)(sin(piex/2))always >o for all x?
 
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darius said:
The question is show that the equation f(x)=3x-2+cos(Piex/2)=0 has exactly one real root.
Using the intermediate value theorem f is continuous and f(o)=-1 and f(1)=1., the equation has one root. Supposing it has two roots a and b , and
a<b. Then f(a)=0=f(b). Using Rolle's theorem there is a number d in (a,b) such that f'(x)=3-(pie/2)(sin(piex/2))=0 has a root in (a,b). But this is impossible since after factoring sin(piex/2)=6/pie is always greater than zero for all real x. I am having problems with factoring. Why is 3-(pie/2)(sin(piex/2))always >o for all x?


First it's pi not pie. Now for your question as to why it is always greater than zero this is because you reduced this to sin(pi*x/2) = 6/pi, but the range of the sine function is only from -1 to 1, and you should notice that 6/pi is greater than 1 hence 3 - (pi/2)(sin(pi*x/2)) is always greater than 0 for real x.
 
thank you so much. Sometimes, we have a hard time seeing the easiest step after going though the hard steps! I am just beginning calculus and I am starting college in the fall. Thank you! P. S. today was my first day at this forum!
 
darius said:
thank you so much. Sometimes, we have a hard time seeing the easiest step after going though the hard steps! I am just beginning calculus and I am starting college in the fall. Thank you! P. S. today was my first day at this forum!

Yes I know exactly what you mean, I'm glad i could help and welcome to the forums.
 

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