MHB Show Equivalence: $a^d \equiv 1 \pmod n$

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The discussion centers on proving that if \( a^{n-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{n} \) for \( n = pq \) (where \( p \) and \( q \) are distinct primes) then \( a^d \equiv 1 \pmod{n} \) with \( d = \gcd(p-1, q-1) \). Initial attempts involve manipulating the exponent \( pq-1 \) and expressing it in terms of \( d \), but the conclusion that \( a^d \equiv 1 \pmod{n} \) remains unproven. The discussion introduces Euler's theorem and the Chinese Remainder Theorem as potential tools for the proof. Ultimately, a clearer understanding of the relationship between \( d \) and the modular conditions is suggested as a pathway to the solution. The conversation highlights the complexity of deriving the equivalence directly from the given conditions.
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Hello! (Wave)

Suppose that $p,q$ are two distinct primes , $n=pq$ and $d=gcd(p-1,q-1)$.
I want to show that if $a^{n-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{n}$ for some $a$ then $a^d \equiv 1 \pmod{n}$.

That's what I have tried:

$
a^{pq-1}\equiv 1 \pmod n \Rightarrow a^{pq-p+p-1}\equiv 1 \pmod n \Rightarrow a^{p(q-1)+(p-1)}\equiv 1 \pmod n \Rightarrow a^{Ad+Bd}\equiv 1 \pmod n$ for some $A,B \in \mathbb{Z}$.
Then we have $ a^{d(A+B)}\equiv 1 \pmod n \Rightarrow \left (a^{d}\right )^{A+B}\equiv 1 \pmod n$.

But from this, we cannot deduce that $a^d \equiv 1 \pmod{n}$, can we? (Thinking)
 
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evinda said:
Hello! (Wave)

Suppose that $p,q$ are two distinct primes , $n=pq$ and $d=gcd(p-1,q-1)$.
I want to show that if $a^{n-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{n}$ for some $a$ then $a^d \equiv 1 \pmod{n}$.

That's what I have tried:

$
a^{pq-1}\equiv 1 \pmod n \Rightarrow a^{pq-p+p-1}\equiv 1 \pmod n \Rightarrow a^{p(q-1)+(p-1)}\equiv 1 \pmod n \Rightarrow a^{Ad+Bd}\equiv 1 \pmod n$ for some $A,B \in \mathbb{Z}$.
Then we have $ a^{d(A+B)}\equiv 1 \pmod n \Rightarrow \left (a^{d}\right )^{A+B}\equiv 1 \pmod n$.

But from this, we cannot deduce that $a^d \equiv 1 \pmod{n}$, can we? (Thinking)

Hey evinda! (Smile)

I haven't figured it out yet. :(

However, I can see a couple of approaches...
According to Euler we have:
$$a^{\phi(pq)} \equiv a^{(p-1)(q-1)} \equiv 1 \pmod{pq}$$
And according to the Chinese Remainder Theorem we have:
$$(a^{pq-1}, a^{pq-1}) \equiv (1 \bmod p,1 \bmod q)\quad\Rightarrow\quad a^{q-1}\equiv 1 \pmod p \quad\land\quad a^{p-1}\equiv 1 \pmod q$$
(Thinking)
 
We also have that $d=x(p-1)+y(q-1)$ for some $x,y \in \mathbb{Z}$ and from this and what you said above it follows that $a^d \equiv 1 \pmod{n}$. (Thinking)
 
Last edited:
evinda said:
We also have that $d=x(p-1)+y(q-1)$ for some $x,y \in \mathbb{Z}$ and from this and what you said above it follows that $a^d \equiv 1 \pmod{n}$. (Thinking)

Ah yes. Nice! (Smile)
 
Here is a little puzzle from the book 100 Geometric Games by Pierre Berloquin. The side of a small square is one meter long and the side of a larger square one and a half meters long. One vertex of the large square is at the center of the small square. The side of the large square cuts two sides of the small square into one- third parts and two-thirds parts. What is the area where the squares overlap?

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