zeeshahmad
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I have a past paper question from statistical physics:
By assuming that ##\hbar^2 k^2=p^2##, I arrived at the result:
The interparticle spacing, ##a^3 =\frac{V}{N}## is
$$ a^3 >> e^{-\frac{p^2}{2mk_B T}} \lambda_{deB}^3$$
Is my assumption correct? and does the result complete the purpose of the question?
By assuming that ##\hbar^2 k^2=p^2##, I arrived at the result:
The interparticle spacing, ##a^3 =\frac{V}{N}## is
$$ a^3 >> e^{-\frac{p^2}{2mk_B T}} \lambda_{deB}^3$$
Is my assumption correct? and does the result complete the purpose of the question?