Show that gof is uniformly continuous

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the exercise of proving that the composition of two uniformly continuous functions, \( g \circ f \), is uniformly continuous given that \( f \) is uniformly continuous on \( A \) and \( g \) is uniformly continuous on \( B \). The scope includes mathematical reasoning and exploration of definitions related to uniform continuity.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Exploratory

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants clarify the definitions of uniform continuity for functions \( f \) and \( g \) and express the goal of showing that \( h = g \circ f \) is uniformly continuous.
  • Participants discuss the need to establish a relationship between the closeness of \( g(x) \) and \( g(y) \) to apply the uniform continuity of \( g \).
  • One participant suggests a structured approach to the proof, involving the selection of appropriate \( \delta \) and \( \eta \) values based on the definitions of uniform continuity.
  • Another participant proposes that if \( |x-y| < \eta \), then \( |f(x)-f(y)| < \delta \) should lead to \( |g(f(x)) - g(f(y))| < \epsilon \), indicating a logical progression in the proof.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the steps needed to show that \( g \circ f \) is uniformly continuous, but there is no explicit consensus on the final formulation of the proof, as some details remain under discussion.

Contextual Notes

Participants express uncertainty about the exact conditions needed to finalize the proof, particularly regarding the choice of \( \epsilon' \) and how it relates to \( \epsilon \) in the context of the uniform continuity of \( g \).

evinda
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Hi! :)
I am given the following exercise:
$f:A \to B,g:B \to R$
If $f$ is uniformly continuous at $A$ and $g$ is uniformly continuous at $B$,show that gof is uniformly continuous.
That's what I have tried so far:
Let $\epsilon'>0$.Since $f$ is uniformly continuous at $A$ there is a $\delta=\delta(\epsilon')>0$ such that $\forall x,y \in A$ with $|x-y|<\delta \Rightarrow |f(x)-f(y)|< \epsilon'$.

Let $\epsilon>0$.Since $g$ is uniformly continuous at $B$,there is a $w=w(\epsilon)>0$ such that $\forall u,v \in B$ with $|u-v|<w \Rightarrow |g(u)-g(v)|< \epsilon$.

Am I right so far?How can I continue?
 
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evinda said:
Hi! :)
I am given the following exercise:
$f:A \to B,g:B \to R$
If $f$ is uniformly continuous at $A$ and $g$ is uniformly continuous at $B$,show that gof is uniformly continuous.
That's what I have tried so far:
Let $\epsilon'>0$.Since $f$ is uniformly continuous at $A$ there is a $\delta=\delta(\epsilon')>0$ such that $\forall x,y \in A$ with $|x-y|<\delta \Rightarrow |f(x)-f(y)|< \epsilon'$.

Let $\epsilon>0$.Since $g$ is uniformly continuous at $B$,there is a $w=w(\epsilon)>0$ such that $\forall u,v \in B$ with $|u-v|<\epsilon \Rightarrow |g(u)-g(v)|< \epsilon$.

Am I right so far?How can I continue?

First you mean to say $f$ is uniformly continuous on $A$, $g$ is uniformly continuous on $B$.

Let $h=g\circ f: A\to \mathbb{R}$. We want to show this is uniformly continuous. What does the definition say? For any $\varepsilon > 0$ we can find $\delta > 0$ so that if $|x-y|<\delta \text{ and }x,y \in A$ then $|h(x)-h(y)| < \varepsilon $.

Now $|h(x)-h(y)| = |f(g(x)) - f(g(y))|$. Now the idea is that since $f$ is uniformly continuous if $g(x),g(y)$ are sufficiently close to each other then $|f(g(x)) - f(g(y))|$ can be made arbitrary small. So the question is how do you mean $g(x),g(y)$ close to each other? This is where you start to use uniform continuity of $g$.
 
ThePerfectHacker said:
First you mean to say $f$ is uniformly continuous on $A$, $g$ is uniformly continuous on $B$.

Let $h=g\circ f: A\to \mathbb{R}$. We want to show this is uniformly continuous. What does the definition say? For any $\varepsilon > 0$ we can find $\delta > 0$ so that if $|x-y|<\delta \text{ and }x,y \in A$ then $|h(x)-h(y)| < \varepsilon $.

Now $|h(x)-h(y)| = |f(g(x)) - f(g(y))|$. Now the idea is that since $f$ is uniformly continuous if $g(x),g(y)$ are sufficiently close to each other then $|f(g(x)) - f(g(y))|$ can be made arbitrary small. So the question is how do you mean $g(x),g(y)$ close to each other? This is where you start to use uniform continuity of $g$.

So,can I say it like that?

Let $\epsilon'>0$.Since $f$ is uniformly continuous at $A$ there is a $\delta=\delta(\epsilon')>0$ such that $\forall x,y \in A$ with $|x-y|<\delta \Rightarrow |f(x)-f(y)|< \epsilon'$.

Let $\epsilon>0$.Since $g$ is uniformly continuous at $B$,there is a $w=w(\epsilon)>0$ such that $\forall u,v \in B$ with $|u-v|<w \Rightarrow |g(u)-g(v)|< \epsilon$.

We want to show that $|h(x)-h(y)|=|g(f(x))-g(f(y))|< \epsilon$,and this is true,if $u=f(x),v=f(y),w=\epsilon'$?? Or do I have to say something else to show that gof is uniformly continuous? :confused:
 
evinda said:
So,can I say it like that?

Let $\epsilon'>0$.Since $f$ is uniformly continuous at $A$ there is a $\delta=\delta(\epsilon')>0$ such that $\forall x,y \in A$ with $|x-y|<\delta \Rightarrow |f(x)-f(y)|< \epsilon'$.

Let $\epsilon>0$.Since $g$ is uniformly continuous at $B$,there is a $w=w(\epsilon)>0$ such that $\forall u,v \in B$ with $|u-v|<w \Rightarrow |g(u)-g(v)|< \epsilon$.

We want to show that $|h(x)-h(y)|=|g(f(x))-g(f(y))|< \epsilon$,and this is true,if $u=f(x),v=f(y),w=\epsilon'$?? Or do I have to say something else to show that gof is uniformly continuous? :confused:

You basically got it. Here is a more polished version of what you are trying to say.

Given $\varepsilon > 0$ choose $\delta > 0$ so that $|g(a) - g(b)| < \varepsilon $ provided that $|a-b| < \delta$. Now choose $\eta > 0$ so that $|f(x) - f(y)| < \delta$ provided that $|x-y| < \eta$. If $|x-y|<\eta$ then $|f(x)-f(y)| < \delta$ and then $|g(f(x)) - g(f(y)) | < \varepsilon$.
 
ThePerfectHacker said:
You basically got it. Here is a more polished version of what you are trying to say.

Given $\varepsilon > 0$ choose $\delta > 0$ so that $|g(a) - g(b)| < \varepsilon $ provided that $|a-b| < \delta$. Now choose $\eta > 0$ so that $|f(x) - f(y)| < \delta$ provided that $|x-y| < \eta$. If $|x-y|<\eta$ then $|f(x)-f(y)| < \delta$ and then $|g(f(x)) - g(f(y)) | < \varepsilon$.

I understand... :) Thank you very much!
 

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