MHB Showcasing $V(I \cap J)=V(I) \cup V(J)$ in Polynomials

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To demonstrate that \( V(I \cap J) = V(I) \cup V(J) \) for ideals \( I \) and \( J \) in \( K[x_1, x_2, \dots, x_n] \), the discussion explores the relationship between the varieties of the ideals. The user suggests proving \( V(IJ) = V(I \cap J) \) and \( V(IJ) = V(I) \cup V(J) \) as a method of validation. They correctly derive that if \( x \in V(IJ) \), then \( x \) must belong to either \( V(I) \) or \( V(J) \), leading to the conclusion that \( V(IJ) = V(I) \cup V(J) \). The user seeks guidance on whether their reasoning is correct and if there are alternative methods to establish the equality of the varieties. Further clarification on these points is requested.
evinda
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Hello! (Wave)

I want to show that if $I,J$ ideals of $K[x_1, x_2, \dots , x_n]$, then $V(I \cap J)=V(I) \cup V(J)$.

Do I have to show that $ V(IJ)=V(I\cap J)$ and then $V(IJ)=V(I)\cup V(J)$? (Thinking)

If so, that's what I have tried:

$x \in V(IJ) \leftrightarrow (f_i \cdot g_j)(x)=0$, where $f_i \in I$ and $g_j \in J$

$\leftrightarrow f_i(x) \cdot g_j(x)=0 \leftrightarrow f_i(x)=0 \text{ OR } g_j(x)=0 \leftrightarrow x \in V(I) \text{ OR } x \in V(J)$ $\leftrightarrow x \in V(I)\cup V(J)$

So, $V(IJ)= V(I)\cup V(J)$.

Is it right so far? Or have I done something wrong? (Thinking)

How could I continue? :confused:
 
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Is there also an other way, to show that $V(I \cap J)=V(I) \cup V(J)$? (Thinking)
 
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