Showing that e^a * e^b = e^(a+b)

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the equality ea * eb = e(a+b) using the series expansion of the exponential function. The user initially attempted to manipulate the series incorrectly by multiplying infinite series, which was pointed out by another participant. Ultimately, the user realized that expanding both series for n = 0, 1, 2, and 3 allows for the cancellation of terms, leading to a valid proof. The conversation highlights the importance of correctly applying series multiplication rules in mathematical proofs.

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Homework Statement


By definition, e^{z} = \sum\frac{1}{n!}z^{n}

Use this to show the relationship in the question title


The Attempt at a Solution


Well, what I've tried to do is as follows:
e^{z_{1}}e^{z_{2}} = \sum(z_{1}z_{2})^{n}/{n!^{2}}

And set that equal to
e^{(z_{1}+z_{2})} = \sum\frac{1}{n!}(z_{1}+z_{2})^{n}

What I'm left with is this expression that
(z_{1}+z_{2})^{n} = (z_{1}z_{2})^{n}/n!

those are all sums from n=0 to n=∞ still btw. Sorry for my LameTex inexperience.

My question is, is there any way that I can show that those two are equal? Or have I gone about this all wrong. Thanks!

dacruick
 
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You can't multiply infinite series like you've done. In fact you can't even multiply finite polynomials like that. For example consider the multiplication of the following quadratics:

(x^2 + x + 1)(y^2 + y + 1) = (xy)^2 + x^2y + xy^2 + x^2 + y^2 + x + y + 1 \neq (xy)^2 + xy + 1
 
Poopsilon said:
You can't multiply infinite series like you've done. In fact you can't even multiply finite polynomials like that. For example consider the multiplication of the following quadratics:

(x^2 + x + 1)(y^2 + y + 1) = (xy)^2 + x^2y + xy^2 + x^2 + y^2 + x + y + 1 \neq (xy)^2 + xy + 1

I'm so stupid...Haha, not just because of the foolishness you stated but because as soon as you said that I'm pretty sure I figured out how to do it. Maybe it had something to do with that cup of coffee I just made. You'll have to tussle with Starbucks for partial credit of my pending success.
 
Starbucks is far too successful already, I want all of it.
 
Haha get your lawyer ready then :P.

So I have the answer, I've expanded both of the series for n = 0, 1, 2, and 3 and I can sufficiently see that the terms will cancel out on both sides.

However, I question the completeness of my answer. I assume that the only way to get marks for this badboy is to expand both of the series' in terms of 'n'. I don't readily see how to do this. Would it work if I just multiplied each of the first 4 values of 'n' by the last 2 terms of each series, and then see if those cancelled?

I have next to no pure mathematical background, and I'm unclear as to what constitutes "showing" that these two series are equal.
 

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