Simple closed form for integral

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the evaluation of the integral $$\int_{0}^{1}t\cos(2t\pi)\tan(t\pi)\ln[\sin(t\pi)]\mathrm dt$$ and whether it can be shown to equal $$\color{green}{1\over \pi}\cdot\color{blue}{{\ln 2\over 2}(1-\ln 2)}.$$ The scope includes mathematical reasoning and potentially exploratory approaches to solving the integral.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Homework-related, Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents the integral and its proposed closed form.
  • Multiple participants express a desire for hints to approach the problem, indicating a need for guidance rather than direct solutions.
  • A later post reiterates the request for hints after a significant delay, suggesting ongoing uncertainty and difficulty in tackling the integral.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the need for hints to solve the integral, but no consensus on a method or solution exists as the discussion remains unresolved.

Contextual Notes

The discussion lacks specific mathematical techniques or assumptions that could lead to a resolution, and the participants have not provided any steps or approaches to evaluate the integral.

Who May Find This Useful

Readers interested in integral calculus, particularly those looking for collaborative problem-solving approaches in advanced mathematics.

Tony1
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How may we go about to show that,

$$\int_{0}^{1}t\cos(2t\pi)\tan(t\pi)\ln[\sin(t\pi)]\mathrm dt=\color{green}{1\over \pi}\cdot\color{blue}{{\ln 2\over 2}(1-\ln 2)}$$
 
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A hint is requested ... (Blush)
 
lfdahl said:
A hint is requested ... (Blush)
can I get the hint?
 
64 days after my 1st request:

A hint is still requested ... (Wave)
 

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