This is a ambarassingly simple question, the question is if my explantion is acceptable. I have come across the integrant form negative infinity to positive infinity and I have come across the integrand from 2pi to zero that is set equal to 1 and then abs value squared of the wavefunction and so on, this is all clear to me.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

My explanation concernes the 2pi zero integrand, does one use this (2pi zero) because one is talking about a circular area?

Thanks, for clarifications

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Simple question on renormalization

Loading...

Similar Threads - Simple question renormalization | Date |
---|---|

B Entangled particle Superposition(Simple question) | Mar 7, 2018 |

B Simple question about MWI superposition | Feb 19, 2018 |

I Simple Question about Feynman Integral | Oct 28, 2017 |

I Some simple questions about <Ψ|P|Ψ> | Mar 4, 2017 |

A A simple question about light | Dec 9, 2016 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**