Hello all I had a simple question that I am intuitively sure I know the answer to but can't quite prove it. Suppose k is a polynomial in x and y, and k(x-1) = q for q some polynomial in y. Then is k = 0 ? How do I verify that k must be equal to 0? I can see that to just get a polynomial in y we have to try to get rid of that x term, but I can't quite prove why we cant just make some polynomial that gets rid of it somehow. any help would be appreciated, thanks