Understanding the Simple Proof of sin^2θ = 1-cos^2θ in Trigonometry

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The proof of the identity sin²θ = 1 - cos²θ is derived from the relationship between the sides of a right triangle. The confusion arises from the manipulation of the expression (r² - x²)/r². The correct interpretation involves factoring the numerator, leading to the conclusion that (r² - x²)/r² simplifies to 1 - (x²/r²), not 1 - x². This clarification emphasizes the importance of proper fraction manipulation in trigonometric proofs.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of basic trigonometric identities
  • Familiarity with right triangle properties
  • Knowledge of algebraic manipulation of fractions
  • Basic calculus concepts related to limits and continuity
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the Pythagorean identity in trigonometry
  • Learn about the properties of rational expressions and their simplifications
  • Explore the relationship between sine, cosine, and the unit circle
  • Investigate advanced trigonometric identities and their proofs
USEFUL FOR

High school students, mathematics educators, and anyone seeking to deepen their understanding of trigonometric identities and algebraic manipulation techniques.

claytonh4
Messages
79
Reaction score
0
Hi everyone.
I'm in high school still so please bear with me on the simplicity of this problem. I'm working through a calculus book and the trig intro section has a proof I know to be true, but I have a hard time following in one spot. Here it is:

sin^2θ=(y^2/r^2)=([r^2-x^2]/r^2)=1-(x/r)^2=1-cos^2θ

The part where I get confused is how ([r^2-x^2]/r^2)=1-(x/r)^2
I would have thought the r^2/r^2 would make 1, leaving a negative x^2; thus rather than it being a 1-(x/r)^2, it would be 1-x^2. If someone could explain where my mistake is i would appreciate it. And sorry it's so messy, I couldn't figure out how to superscript so I used the ^ symbol.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
claytonh4 said:
Hi everyone.
I'm in high school still so please bear with me on the simplicity of this problem. I'm working through a calculus book and the trig intro section has a proof I know to be true, but I have a hard time following in one spot. Here it is:

sin^2θ=(y^2/r^2)=([r^2-x^2]/r^2)=1-(x/r)^2=1-cos^2θ

The part where I get confused is how ([r^2-x^2]/r^2)=1-(x/r)^2
I would have thought the r^2/r^2 would make 1, leaving a negative x^2; thus rather than it being a 1-(x/r)^2, it would be 1-x^2. If someone could explain where my mistake is i would appreciate it. And sorry it's so messy, I couldn't figure out how to superscript so I used the ^ symbol.

Your mistake is thinking that ##\frac{r^2 - x^2}{r^2} = 1 - x^2##

In other words, that the r2 term in the numerator "cancels" with the r2 term in the denominator. Fractions and rational expressions don't work that way. The only time you get cancellation is when the same factor appears in both numerator and denominator. The problem in what you did is that the numerator is not factored.

This is what you could have done:
$$\frac{r^2 - x^2}{r^2} = \frac{r^2(1 - (x^2/r^2))}{r^2} = \frac{r^2}{r^2}\cdot (1 - (x^2/r^2)) = 1 - (x^2/r^2)$$

The second expression, above, has a factor of r2 in both numerator and denominator, so it cancels.
 
claytonh4 said:

Homework Statement



Hi everyone.
I'm in high school still so please bear with me on the simplicity of this problem. I'm working through a calculus book and the trig intro section has a proof I know to be true, but I have a hard time following in one spot. Here it is:


Homework Equations



sin^2θ=(y^2/r^2)=([r^2-x^2]/r^2)=1-(x/r)^2=1-cos^2θ

The Attempt at a Solution



The part where I get confused is how ([r^2-x^2]/r^2)=1-(x/r)^2
I would have thought the r^2/r^2 would make 1, leaving a negative x^2; thus rather than it being a 1-(x/r)^2, it would be 1-x^2. If someone could explain where my mistake is i would appreciate it. And sorry it's so messy, I couldn't figure out how to superscript so I used the ^ symbol.

r2=y2+x2
You have to divide both r2 and x2 by r2
(r^2-x^2)\frac{1}{r^2}
 
Mark44 said:
Your mistake is thinking that ##\frac{r^2 - x^2}{r^2} = 1 - x^2##

In other words, that the r2 term in the numerator "cancels" with the r2 term in the denominator. Fractions and rational expressions don't work that way. The only time you get cancellation is when the same factor appears in both numerator and denominator. The problem in what you did is that the numerator is not factored.

This is what you could have done:
$$\frac{r^2 - x^2}{r^2} = \frac{r^2(1 - (x^2/r^2))}{r^2} = \frac{r^2}{r^2}\cdot (1 - (x^2/r^2)) = 1 - (x^2/r^2)$$

The second expression, above, has a factor of r2 in both numerator and denominator, so it cancels.

Oh ok I see. So if I want to employ that train of thought I need to expand the problem so it will work? Thank you for your help, that makes more sense now.
 
azizlwl said:
r2=y2+x2
You have to divide both r2 and x2 by r2
(r^2-x^2)\frac{1}{r^2}

Ok that makes more sense. I think I was looking at it too simplistically. When I saw the 1 in the equation, I wanted to try to cancel, but I didn't account for dividing there. Thanks for your help.
 
Neat - I'd like to add to what Mark44 said with:

\frac{a+b}{c} = (a+b)\div c = \frac{1}{c}(a+b) = \frac{a}{c} + \frac{b}{c}
 
Simon Bridge said:
Neat - I'd like to add to what Mark44 said with:

\frac{a+b}{c} = (a+b)\div c = \frac{1}{c}(a+b) = \frac{a}{c} + \frac{b}{c}

Thank you! I think that's an excellent example of how that dividing property works.
 
As the Heart of Gold doors' say, "pleased to be of service."
 

Similar threads

Replies
13
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
689
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
8K
  • · Replies 29 ·
Replies
29
Views
4K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K