Sin/cos integrals multiplying results (fourier transform).

Click For Summary
The discussion focuses on determining the Fourier transform of the function cos(2πx) using Euler's relation. The user seeks to understand the integral results for the multiplication of sine and cosine functions, specifically for limits extending to ±∞, as the known results are only applicable for ±π. It is noted that for a Fourier transform to exist, the integral of the absolute value of the function must converge, which is not the case for sine and cosine functions. The conversation suggests that these functions can be expressed in terms of delta functions, indicating a need for a different approach. Overall, the thread highlights the complexities of applying traditional integral results to infinite limits in Fourier analysis.
binbagsss
Messages
1,291
Reaction score
12
Okay, I am trying to determine the Fourier transform of cos (2\pix)=f(x)

Where F(k)=^{\infty}_{\infty}\intf(x)exp^{-ikx} dx,

So I use eulers relation to express the exponential term in terms of cos and sin, and then I want to use sin/cos multiplication integral results, such as:

^{\infty}_{-\infty}\int cos(nx)cos(mx) dx =\pi if m=n≠0
= 2\pi if m=n=0
=0 if m≠n


- But these are only defined for limits \pm\pi.
So my question is , what are these results for \pm\infty.

Is there a obvious natural extension?

Many thanks for any assistance !
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
binbagsss said:
Okay, I am trying to determine the Fourier transform of cos (2\pix)=f(x)

Where F(k)=^{\infty}_{\infty}\intf(x)exp^{-ikx} dx,

So I use eulers relation to express the exponential term in terms of cos and sin, and then I want to use sin/cos multiplication integral results, such as:

^{\infty}_{-\infty}\int cos(nx)cos(mx) dx =\pi if m=n≠0
= 2\pi if m=n=0
=0 if m≠n


- But these are only defined for limits \pm\pi.
So my question is , what are these results for \pm\infty.

Is there a obvious natural extension?

Many thanks for any assistance !

One of the requirements for a Fourier transform of a function ##f## to exist is$$
\int_{-\infty}^\infty |f(x)|~dx$$converge. Sines and cosines don't satisfy that. Apparently there is some sense in which it can be expressed with delta functions.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K