So the freely falling rock will follow a single geodesic on its way to Earth.

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the nature of geodesics in general relativity (GR) and their relation to freely falling objects. It establishes that geodesics represent paths of constant velocity in a local inertial frame, where acceleration is zero. The conversation clarifies that while freely falling objects follow a unique geodesic, they do not experience forces in the Newtonian sense, as gravity is not treated as a force in GR. The geodesics relevant to falling objects near Earth are derived from the Schwarzschild metric, which complicates the equations of motion compared to simple Euclidean space.

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  • Understanding of general relativity (GR) principles
  • Familiarity with geodesic equations and their implications
  • Knowledge of the Schwarzschild metric and its application
  • Basic concepts of 4-velocity and proper acceleration
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  • Study the derivation of geodesic equations in the Schwarzschild metric
  • Explore the implications of Einstein's equivalence principle on free fall
  • Learn about the differences between Newtonian mechanics and general relativity
  • Investigate the concept of proper time and its relation to geodesics
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AriAstronomer
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"The geodesics in R n are the straight lines parametrized by constant velocity".

This can be proved with the geodesic equation:
\ddot{x^a} + \Gamma^a_{bc} \dot{x^b} \dot{x^c}=0
Locally we can find a coordinate system such that \Gamma =0, and thus:
\ddot{x^a} =0
So along a geodesic at some point P, acceleration = 0 and there is constant velocity.

But geodesics are the paths that freely falling objects will take, and freely falling objects accelerate according to Newton's law F=ma. But from the geodesic equation we get that a=0 and thus F=0 ... what gives?

Also, a geodesic always a local path (extending off a point), right?? I.e. a freely falling rock dropped off a cliff will traverse many different geodesics on its way to Earth vs. a single geodesic on its way to Earth?

Thanks,
Ari
 
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AriAstronomer said:
But geodesics are the paths that freely falling objects will take, and freely falling objects accelerate according to Newton's law F=ma. But from the geodesic equation we get that a=0 and thus F=0 ... what gives?

Also, a geodesic always a local path (extending off a point), right?? I.e. a freely falling rock dropped off a cliff will traverse many different geodesics on its way to Earth vs. a single geodesic on its way to Earth?
Hi Ari, I am not an expert, but here is my 2 cents worth until the real experts log in ;)
In GR gravity is not a force in the Newtonian sense. Free falling objects simply follow a geodesic. It takes a force to stop them moving along a geodesic. For example an object sitting on a high platform will experience proper acceleration. If the platform collapses, the object follows a geodesic and experiences no proper acceleration. When it hit the ground it once again experiences a force that prevents it following a geodesic.

The local path between two points that has the greatest proper time interval is a geodesic (or at least part of one). This does not mean that the geodesic has to be local, i.e it does not start and stop and those two points. The geodesic path can be extended into the infinite past and future. Your freely falling rock dropped off a cliff will follow many geodesic paths if and only if it bounces of other objects on its way down the cliff. If it is freely falling it will follow one unique geodesic.
 
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AriAstronomer said:
"The geodesics in R n are the straight lines parametrized by constant velocity".i

Where did you read that ? It's obvious that geodesics do not necessarily have constant velocity, certainly not if there is gravity about.
 
In addition to yuiop's excellent comments, let me just elucidate a minor point. In GR, the equations of motion for a freely falling particle with 4-velocity ##u^{\mu}## are ##u^{\nu}\nabla_{\nu} u^{\mu} = 0##. Notice here that there are no distinct gravitational and inertial terms; the idea is that both gravity and inertia are codified in an inseparable manner into the metric associated derivative operator ##\nabla_{\mu}## as a consequence of Einstein's equivalence principle. There is no unique way to decompose the motion of a freely falling particle into gravitational and inertial components; this is the covariant framework of free fall motion in GR.

If we were to write down the equations of motion in the Newtonian limit, after having chosen a fixed background global inertial frame ##(t,x^i)##, we would get something of the form ##\frac{\mathrm{d} ^2 x^{i}}{\mathrm{d} t^2} = - \Gamma ^{i}_{tt} = -\frac{\partial \varphi}{\partial x^{i}}## where ##\varphi## is a quantity given in terms of the ##h_{tt}## component of a perturbed metric tensor ##h_{\mu\nu}## (perturbed in the sense that it describes "small" deviations from flatness). Notice that we can write this more suggestively as ##\vec{a} = -\nabla \varphi##. What we have done in the Newtonian limit, relative to that choice of fixed background global inertial frame, is decompose ##\nabla_{\mu}## into gravitational and inertial components exactly like the equations of motion for free fall in Newtonian mechanics.
 
Mentz114 said:
Where did you read that ? It's obvious that geodesics do not necessarily have constant velocity, certainly not if there is gravity about.

He/she said the geodesics of ##\mathbb{R}^{n}##, which are certainly straight lines of constant velocity.
 
AriAstronomer said:
"The geodesics in R n are the straight lines parametrized by constant velocity".

This can be proved with the geodesic equation:
\ddot{x^a} + \Gamma^a_{bc} \dot{x^b} \dot{x^c}=0
Locally we can find a coordinate system such that \Gamma =0, and thus:
\ddot{x^a} =0
So along a geodesic at some point P, acceleration = 0 and there is constant velocity.

But geodesics are the paths that freely falling objects will take, and freely falling objects accelerate according to Newton's law F=ma. But from the geodesic equation we get that a=0 and thus F=0 ... what gives?

The geodesics of interest for a freely falling object are not the geodesics of R^n. The geodesics of R^n would be for example the geodesics of a straight line in Euclidean space.

The geodesics of interest for a freely falling object are the geodesics of the Lorentzian signature space-time near the surface of the Earth, which is not the same as R^n. If you use an earth-center inertial coordinate system and ignore the effects of the Earth's rotation (a very good but not perfect approximation), you can approximate the metric near the surface of the Earth with a Schwarzschild metric. You can then go on to write down the geodesic equations (which will be considerably more complex than the ones you just wrote) and get an approximately correct trajectory for a falling object.
 
AriAstronomer said:
But geodesics are the paths that freely falling objects will take, and freely falling objects accelerate according to Newton's law F=ma. But from the geodesic equation we get that a=0 and thus F=0 ... what gives?
The proper acceleration of free fallers is zero. That's what a free falling accelerometer measures.

AriAstronomer said:
Also, a geodesic always a local path (extending off a point), right?? I.e. a freely falling rock dropped off a cliff will traverse many different geodesics on its way to Earth vs. a single geodesic on its way to Earth?
The geodesic is determined by the starting point and the initial direction. The initial direction in space-time is determined by the initial velocity. If you let it go from rest, the initial direction is along the time dimension, like shown in this animation.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=DdC0QN6f3G4
 
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