Solve ab+cd Given a^2+b^2=c^2+d^2=1 and ac+bd=0

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The problem involves finding the value of ab + cd given the conditions a² + b² = c² + d² = 1 and ac + bd = 0. The solution is definitively 0, as derived through various algebraic manipulations and the interpretation of the variables as perpendicular unit vectors. The key insight is recognizing that the conditions imply orthogonality, leading to the conclusion that ab + cd must equal zero.

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Homework Statement


Suppose that a, b, c, d are real numbers such that a^2 + b^2 = c^2 + d^2 = 1 and ac + bd = 0. What is ab + cd?

Homework Equations


<br /> a^{2} + b^{2} = c^{2} + d^{2} = 1<br />
ac + bd = 0<br />

The Attempt at a Solution


Clearly, ac = -bd. I know the solution is 0, but I am having trouble proving or deriving it.
A few things to note (some may be useless, but this is an involved problem and I'm getting my hands dirty):

<br /> <br /> (a + c)^{2} + (b + d)^{2} = a^{2} + b^{2} + c^{2} + d^{2} + 2(ac + bd) = 1 + 1 = 2<br />
<br /> (a + d)(b + c) = ab + ac + bd + cd = ab + 0 + cd = ab + cd<br /> <br />

And there are many other expressions like these, but not sure how to piece them together. The first equation tells me that the hypotenuse of a rectangle with sides (a+c) and (b+d) is sqrt(2).
The second equation tells me the area of a rectangle with sides (a+d)(b+c) = ab+cd, assuming that one value is < 0. I know there is something else I'm missing, just not sure what it is.

Any help would be greatly appreciated.
 
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I really think there should be an elegant solution. For the time being, here's a brute force approach: You have three equations in four unknowns. You can solve for three of the variables in terms of the fourth, and use that to conclude that ab + cd = 0.

If one of the numbers is zero, it is pretty straight forward to show that ab + cd = 0. So let's assume that all variables are nonzero. Then you can use ac + bd = 0 to solve for a in terms of the other variables: a = -bd/c. Plug that into a^2 + b^2 = 1 to get d in terms of b and c. Then plug that into c^2 + d^2 = 1 and see what you get. I don't want to spoil the surprise!
 


I tried that approach earlier and obtained
<br /> c^{2}(2-\frac{1}{b^{2}}) = 1<br />
I was unable to manipulate it any further into something meaningful.
It feels like I am missing something from this approach as well.
 


Hmm, I will double-check my own calculation but I ended up with b^2 = c^2 and a^2 = d^2.
 


If a = -bd/c, then

a^2 + b^2 = b^2 d^2 / c^2 + b^2 = 1

so

d^2 = c^2 (1-b^2) /b^2

1 = c^2 + d^2 = c^2 + c^2 (1-b^2) /b^2 = c^2 \left(1 + \frac{(1 - b^2)}{b^2} \right) = \frac{c^2}{b^2}

Hence b^2 = c^2.
 


owlpride said:
If a = -bd/c, then

a^2 + b^2 = b^2 d^2 / c^2 + b^2 = 1

so

d^2 = c^2 (1-b^2) /b^2

1 = c^2 + d^2 = c^2 + c^2 (1-b^2) /b^2 = c^2 \left(1 + \frac{(1 - b^2)}{b^2} \right) = \frac{c^2}{b^2}

Hence b^2 = c^2.

OH, I see my mistake. I had
a^2 = -\left(\frac{bd}{c}\right)^2
Which is why I had the 2 inside the parentheses.

And from there we get a^2 = d^2 as well, and since one must be negative to satisfy ac+bd= 0 blah blah ab+cd = 0.

Thank you very much!
 
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interpret it as perpendicular vectors with norm 1:a=sin(t)
b=cos(t)

c=sin(t+pi/2)=cos(t)
d=cos(t+pi/2)=-sin(t)

ab+cd=0
 


boboYO, that is a very interesting solution. Thank you!
 

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