nhrock3
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A is a simetric metrices nxn. so [tex]v\in R^n[/tex] and [tex]v\neq 0[/tex]
so [tex](\lambda I -A)^2=0[/tex] for some [tex]\lambda[/tex]
prove that for the same [tex]v[/tex] [tex](\lambda I -A)=0[/tex]
how i tried to solve it:
i just collected data from the given.
simetric matrices is diagonizable.
[tex]B=(\lambda I -A)[/tex]
we were given that [tex]B^2v=0[/tex]
so [tex]B^2v \bullet v=0[/tex] (dot product is also v)
so v is orthogonal to [tex]B^2v[/tex]
what to do now?
so [tex](\lambda I -A)^2=0[/tex] for some [tex]\lambda[/tex]
prove that for the same [tex]v[/tex] [tex](\lambda I -A)=0[/tex]
how i tried to solve it:
i just collected data from the given.
simetric matrices is diagonizable.
[tex]B=(\lambda I -A)[/tex]
we were given that [tex]B^2v=0[/tex]
so [tex]B^2v \bullet v=0[/tex] (dot product is also v)
so v is orthogonal to [tex]B^2v[/tex]
what to do now?
Last edited: