MHB Solve Real Solutions of $(1-x_1)^2+\cdots+x_{2013}^2=\frac{1}{2014}$

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The equation presented involves finding real solutions to a specific sum of squared differences equating to a fraction. By defining variables and applying the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality, it is shown that all differences between consecutive terms must be equal, leading to a unique solution of the form \(x_i = 1 - \frac{i}{2014}\) for \(1 \leq i \leq 2013\). However, it is noted that there exists another set of solutions that also satisfies the equation, indicating that the problem may have multiple valid solutions. Further exploration is needed to identify these additional solutions. The discussion highlights the complexity of the equation and the necessity for a comprehensive solution set.
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Find all the solutions in real numbers to the equation:
\[
(1-x_1)^2 +(x_1-x_2)^2+(x_2-x_3)^2 + \cdots + (x_{2012}-x_{2013})^2 + x_{2013}^2 = \frac{1}{2014},
\]
and show that you have all of the solutions that would satisfy the equation.
 
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[sp]and show that you have all of the solutions that would satisfy the equation.[/QUOTE]
Let $x_0 = 1$, $x_{2014} = 0$ and $y_i = x_{i-1} - x_i\ (1\leqslant i\leqslant 2014)$. Then $\sum y_i = x_0 - x_{2014} = 1-0 = 1$ (telescoping sum), and $\sum y_i^2 = \frac1{2014}.$ Let $z_i = 1\ (1\leqslant i\leqslant 2014)$. Then $1 = \sum y_i = \Bigl(\sum y_i\Bigr)^2 = \Bigl(\sum y_iz_i\Bigr)^2 \leqslant \sum y_i^2 \sum z_i^2 = \frac{2014}{2014} = 1$ (Cauchy–Schwarz). But equality holds in the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality only if $y_i = cz_i$ for some constant $c$. Thus all the $y_i$ are equal, and since their sum is $1$ they must all be equal to $\dfrac1{2014}.$ Therefore $x_i = 1 - \dfrac i{2014}\ (1\leqslant i\leqslant 2013)$, and that is the unique solution.[/sp]
 
Opalg said:
[sp]and show that you have all of the solutions that would satisfy the equation.
Let $x_0 = 1$, $x_{2014} = 0$ and $y_i = x_{i-1} - x_i\ (1\leqslant i\leqslant 2014)$. Then $\sum y_i = x_0 - x_{2014} = 1-0 = 1$ (telescoping sum), and $\sum y_i^2 = \frac1{2014}.$ Let $z_i = 1\ (1\leqslant i\leqslant 2014)$. Then $1 = \sum y_i = \Bigl(\sum y_i\Bigr)^2 = \Bigl(\sum y_iz_i\Bigr)^2 \leqslant \sum y_i^2 \sum z_i^2 = \frac{2014}{2014} = 1$ (Cauchy–Schwarz). But equality holds in the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality only if $y_i = cz_i$ for some constant $c$. Thus all the $y_i$ are equal, and since their sum is $1$ they must all be equal to $\dfrac1{2014}.$ Therefore $x_i = 1 - \dfrac i{2014}\ (1\leqslant i\leqslant 2013)$, and that is the unique solution.[/sp][/QUOTE]

Almost correct. There is actually another set of $x_i$ that would work.
 
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