Solving a Math Mystery: Wave Functions & Probability Density

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The discussion centers on confusion regarding the dimensions of wave functions and probability density in quantum mechanics. The original poster questions why integrating the probability density does not yield a length, highlighting their misunderstanding of the dimensionality of wave functions. They initially used the non-normalizable wave function e^{ikx} as an example, which led to their confusion. Upon clarification, it is noted that actual wave functions, like the Gaussian wave packet, have dimensions of sqrt(length), and the total probability of a valid wave function should equal 1. The poster acknowledges their mistake and recognizes that their question stemmed from incorrect assumptions.
Unkraut
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Hello!
I study mathematics and am in my sixth year, but...
I have a very elementary question:

I stumbled upon it while learning for quantum mechanics. But it's nothing new, it's happening to me all the time: I get confused by things like this!

Observe the following facts:
Suppose we deal with the space of wave functions over the real line.
The wave function \psi(x) is a complex scalar. Take for example \psi(x)=e^{ikx} (not normalizable, don't need it)
The derivative \psi'(x)=ike^{ikx} has 1/length as it's unit.
Integrating that over some interval yields a scalar. \psi(b)-\psi(a)
The probability density \psi*(x)\psi(x) is a scalar.
Integrating this over the real line (length) gives 1. A scalar...
Shouldn't such an operation yield a length? Am I stupid?

I am not joking. For me this is a mystery.

Thanks for your answers.
 
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When you integrate the probability density (scalar) with respect to length, the answer will have the same dimension (scalar x length).
 
I can't get what you want to calculate and it seems for me that it hardly makes sense, but obvious mistake you did is that \int_a^b\psi^{*}(x)\psi(x) dx is not equal 1, but b-a
 
xts said:
I can't get what you want to calculate and it seems for me that it hardly makes sense, but obvious mistake you did is that \int_b^a\psi^{*}(x)\psi(x) dx is not equal 1, but b-a

Sorry, I was talking about integrating over the whole (1-dimensional) space here (which has the physical dimension of length). And the total probability (of an physical wave function, not the example I used) should be 1.
But I see that my example e^ikx is not an example for a real wave function. And an actual wave function (in 1-space) actually has dimension sqrt(length), as for example the Gaussian wave packet:

\psi(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma}} with sigma being a length.

So my question was useless and came from wrong presumptions.
 
I do not have a good working knowledge of physics yet. I tried to piece this together but after researching this, I couldn’t figure out the correct laws of physics to combine to develop a formula to answer this question. Ex. 1 - A moving object impacts a static object at a constant velocity. Ex. 2 - A moving object impacts a static object at the same velocity but is accelerating at the moment of impact. Assuming the mass of the objects is the same and the velocity at the moment of impact...

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