Solving an ODE about a point using a solution about another point?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around solving an ordinary differential equation (ODE) of the form ##(1-x)y''+y=0## at the point x = 0 and subsequently using that solution to address another ODE, ##xy''+y=0##, at the point x = 1.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster describes their solution process for the first ODE and seeks guidance on applying that solution to the second ODE. One participant suggests a substitution method involving a new variable u = 1 - x, leading to a reformulation of the differential equation.
  • Another participant questions the reasoning behind the new ODE being centered at u = 0 instead of u = 1, prompting a clarification about the transformation of variables.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring the implications of variable substitution and clarifying the reasoning behind the transformation. There is a sense of progress as one participant expresses understanding regarding the variable change.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of transforming ODEs through variable substitution, with some initial confusion about the implications of the new variable's limits. The original poster's solution is referenced but not fully detailed in the discussion.

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Homework Statement



The first task was to solve ##(1-x)y''+y=0## about x = 0, which I've already found.

Now I have to use this solution to solve ##\color{red}{xy''+y=0}## about x = 1.

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



I found the solution about x = 0 (after a lot of rewriting/simplifying) to be

##y=a_0\left(1-\dfrac{1}{2!}x^2-\dfrac{1}{3!}x^3-\dfrac{1}{4!}x^4-\dfrac{2}{5!}x^5-\dfrac{7}{6!}x^6+\cdots\right)+a_1\left(x-\dfrac{1}{3!}x^3-\dfrac{2}{4!}x^4-\dfrac{5}{5!}x^5-\dfrac{18}{6!}x^6+\cdots\right)##

Supposing that's accurate, how can I use it find the next solution?
 
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Let u= 1- x. Then [itex]dy/du= dy/dx (dx/du)= -dy/dx[/itex] and [itex]d^2y/du^2= -(d/dx)(-dy/dx)= d^2y/dx^2[/itex]. The differential equation becomes [itex]ud^2y/^u+ y= 0 with u= 0. So take your solution to [itex](1- x)y''+ y= 0[/itex], and substitute u= 1-x in place of x.[/itex]
 
Just for clarification, why is this new ODE about u = 0, and not u = 1? Since we let ##u=1-x##, why don't we have ##u_0=1-x_0\Rightarrow u_0=1-0=1?##

Thanks for the tip!

EDIT: I see that having ##u_0=1## doesn't change the question... I guess I'd just like to know why ##u_0## doesn't change.
 
I take it back! I understand why ##u_0## is 0. Thanks again!
 

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