Solving Basic Inequality: r1, r2, r3, r4 >0 & t1, t2, t3, t4 in [0, 2π)

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The discussion centers on the mathematical inequality involving positive constants r1, r2, r3, r4 and angles t1, t2, t3, t4 within the interval [0, 2π). The main question posed is whether the condition r1|cos(t-t1)| + r2|cos(t-t2)| < r3|cos(t-t3)| + r4|cos(t-t4)| for all t in [0, 2π) implies that r1 + r2 < r3 + r4. Participants argue that this implication is false, providing counterexamples where the left-hand side can equal the right-hand side under specific conditions, such as when t-t1 and t-t2 equal 0, π, or 2π.

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Could anyone help me on this,
Is it true that for any given r_{1},r_{2},r_{3},r_{4}&gt;0 and t_{1},t_{2},t_{3},t_{4}\in[0,2\pi) if
r_{1}\left|\cos(t-t_{1})\right|+r_{2}\left|\cos(t-t_{2})\right|&lt;r_{3}\left|\cos(t-t_{3})\right|+r_{4}\left|\cos(t-t_{4})\right| for all t\in[0,2\pi)
then r_{1}+r_{2}&lt;r_{3}+r_{4} ?

By the way, this is not a homework problem.

Any help will be highly appreciated!
 
Last edited:
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forumfann said:
Could anyone help me on this,
Is it true that for any given r_{1},r_{2},r_{3},r_{4}&gt;0 and t_{1},t_{2},t_{3},t_{4}\in[0,2\pi) if
r_{1}\left|\cos(t-t_{1})\right|+r_{2}\left|\cos(t-t_{2})\right|&lt;r_{3}\left|\cos(t-t_{3})\right|+r_{4}\left|\cos(t-t_{4})\right| for all t\in[0,2\pi)
then r_{1}+r_{2}&lt;r_{3}+r_{4} ?

By the way, this is not a homework problem.

Any help will be highly appreciated!

I may be incorrect, but I would say this would be false.

What if t-t_{1} and t-t_{2} are equal to 2pi, pi or 0? Then r1 and r2 can be anything, and don't have to satisfy the inequality!
 
Last edited:
If t-t_{1} and t-t_{2} are equal to 2pi, pi or 0 ? Then the left hand side of the given inequality is r_1+r_2, which is less than the right hand side of the given inequality that is not larger than r_3+r_4. Thus the claim is automatically true.

I think what makes it possible to be true is "for all x\in[0,2\pi]", but I don't know how to prove it.

Again, any suggestion that can lead to the answer to the question will be greatly appreciated.
 
Last edited:
Ahh, sorry, I meant pi/2, meaning cos(pi/2) = 0. Then they do not have to be < r3+ r4

Besides, say they are both equal to pi anyway. Then, r1 and r2 can be greater than r3 and r4, yet still hold true in the first inequaility but not the second.
 

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