Solving Integral of exp{-(a*x^2+b*x+c)} from -inf to inf

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the evaluation of the integral of the function exp{-(a*x^2+b*x+c)} over the interval from -infinity to infinity, as well as from 0 to infinity. Participants explore different methods and approaches to solve this integral, including transformations and known results.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant claims to know the result of the integral from -infinity to infinity as sqrt(pi/a)*exp((b^2-4ac)/4a).
  • Another participant requests more detailed work to support the claimed result.
  • A different approach is suggested, where the exponent is rewritten in a specific form to facilitate the integration process, leading to a symmetric integral.
  • A participant challenges the interpretation of the results, indicating a potential calculation error regarding the relationship between the integrals over different limits.
  • Further calculations are proposed to derive the integral from 0 to infinity, referencing the error function and suggesting that it is not simply half of the integral from -infinity to infinity.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach consensus on the relationship between the integrals over the different limits, and there are competing views on the correctness of the calculations presented.

Contextual Notes

There are unresolved assumptions regarding the conditions under which the integrals are evaluated, and the discussion includes varying interpretations of the results based on different approaches to the problem.

yf920
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Integral of exp{-(a*x^2+b*x+c)} from 0 to infinite



i know the answer of Integral of exp{-(a*x^2+b*x+c)} from -inf to inf
= sqrt(pi/a)*exp((b^2-4ac)/4a)



thanks!
 
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FAQ: Why hasn't anybody answered my question? - https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=94383
 
Write the exponent in the form -g(kx+d)^2 + f. Put g(kx+d)=u. Then the integral
(-inf to inf) becomes twice the same integral over (0 to inf), since the integrand is
now of the form e^(-u^2) which is symmetric about 0.
 
@ssd, if you mean that the end result of the integral in the original post is half the result of the other one given in there, you are making a calculation error.

OK yf920, let's calculate the result given. The argument of the exponential function can be written as:

[tex]-ax^2-bx-c=-a\left(x+\frac{b}{2a}\right)^2 +\frac{b^2-4ac}{4a}[/tex]

Putting this into the integral gives then:

[tex]I=e^{\frac{b^2-4ac}{4a}}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-a\left(x+\frac{b}{2a}\right)^2}dx[/tex]

Putting as ssd said:

[tex]\sqrt{a}\left(x+\frac{b}{2a}\right)=t[/tex]

gives now:

[tex]I=\frac{e^{\frac{b^2-4ac}{4a}}}{\sqrt{a}}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-t^2}dt[/tex]

The following integral is known:

[tex]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-t^2}dt=\sqrt{\pi}[/tex]

Giving the final result as:

[tex]I=\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{a}} e^{\frac{b^2-4ac}{4a}}[/tex]

Now, the original question was:

[tex]I=\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-\left(ax^2+bx+c\right)}dx[/tex]

Which is not the double of the one just derived. Just go through all the steps with this new integral limits and use the result:

[tex]erf(x)=\frac{2}{\sqrt{\pi}} \int_{0}^{x}e^{-z^2}dz[/tex]

Do these calculations, and come back with the result you found, it will be our pleasure to check it.
 

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