Solving the FTC (e^-x^2): Find p(x;y) as a Definite Integral

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the function p(x;y) defined for x>y>0, given its derivative dp(x,y)/dx = e^-x^2 and the condition p(y; y) = 0. Participants explore how to express p(x,y) as a definite integral, considering the implications of the boundary conditions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Homework-related

Main Points Raised

  • Dan seeks to express p(x,y) as a definite integral, using the information that p(y; y) = 0 to determine bounds.
  • One participant suggests that for a fixed y, p(y, y) = 0 can help derive p(x; y) = 0, and proposes reducing the problem to a one-dimensional case.
  • Dan expresses uncertainty about whether evaluating the definite integral of dp(x,y)/dx = e^-x^2 with arbitrary bounds is the correct approach.
  • Another participant questions the feasibility of determining the function's value everywhere based solely on its value at one point and its derivative.
  • There are repeated suggestions to find the integral and apply the boundary condition to determine the constant, though Dan expresses difficulty in integrating the function as presented.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the method to express p(x,y) as a definite integral, with some suggesting different approaches and others expressing confusion about the integration process.

Contextual Notes

There are unresolved questions regarding the integration of the function and the implications of the boundary conditions on determining the function's form.

IsomaDan
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The function, p(x;y), of two variables is defi ned for x>y>0, and satisfi es

We furthermore know that dp(x,y)/dx = (e^-x^2)

and that p(y; y) = 0

I now need to write p(x,y) as a definite integral of the form int (f(t)dt, with lower bound t=H and upper bound x.
I suppose I need the info p(y; y) = 0 to get the bounds, but not quite sure how.
Anyone can give me a hint :-)

Dan
 
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For a fixed y, you know p(y, y) = 0. Based on that, how do you get p(x; y) = 0 with dp(x,y)/dx = (e^-x^2)?

If that does not help, here is a slightly easier problem:
For a fixed y, you can reduce it to a 1-dimensional problem: f(y)=0, df/dx=(e^-x^2). Can you write down f(x) with an integral?
 
Dear MFB. Thanks so much for your answers. That's much appreciated.

Well, with regards to your answer, I suppose (but do not know) I evaluate the definte integral of dp(x,y)/dx = (e^-x^2), with the bounds being an arbitrary constant and set it equal to zero?

Is that correct, or am I still far off?

best

Dan
 
I don't understand what you plan to do, or why.

If you know the value of a one-dimensional function at one point and its derivative everywhere, how can you get the value of the function everywhere?
You don't have to evaluate the integral.

If g(0)=3 and g'(x)=x, how does g look like?
 
Find the integral, and insert the "restriction", to find the constant!
 
I do know that, my problem however, is it impossible to integrate the function as it stands there.

best

Dan
 
IsomaDan said:
Find the integral, and insert the "restriction", to find the constant!
That works, right.

I do know that, my problem however, is it impossible to integrate the function as it stands there.
You do not have to integrate that expression. Just write down the integral, and you are done.
 

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