- #1

Coltrane8

Gold Member

- 4

- 1

$$

f(\theta,\varphi)=\sum_{\ell=0}^\infty \sum_{m=-\ell}^\ell f_\ell^m \, Y_\ell^m(\theta,\varphi)\tag 2

$$

where ##Y_\ell^m( \theta , \varphi )## are the Laplace spherical harmonics.

The context here is important because this equality holds only in the sense of the ##L^2##-norm.

This expansion holds in the sense of mean-square convergence which is to say that

$$\lim_{N\to\infty} \int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^\pi \left|f(\theta,\varphi)-\sum_{\ell=0}^N \sum_{m=- \ell}^\ell f_\ell^m Y_\ell^m(\theta,\varphi)\right|^2\sin\theta\, d\theta \,d\varphi = 0.$$

So in general this limit is NOT pointwise? So I can't say that the value at a point of the function equals the value of the expansion at the same point?

If so, why it's usually stated out of the context of the structure of Hilbert space, that a bounded function or a square integrable function on the unit sphere can be expanded with Spherical Harmonics if it's not pointwise? I mean in some context outside the Hilbert space, where I am not interested in their square integral.

Furthermore, if it's not pointwise, but only in the norm, am I allowed to sum term by term two different functions, with two different expansions, like in the quantum scattering problem?