Stuck on Intro Quantum Mechanics Question

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the effects of adding a constant potential energy term, \( V_0 \), to a particle's potential energy in the context of quantum mechanics, specifically within the framework of the Schrödinger equation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to modify the Schrödinger equation by incorporating the constant potential energy term and is considering how to separate variables to solve the time-dependent part. Some participants suggest examining the behavior of the wave function with the added phase factor, while others discuss the implications of not assuming the wave function is an energy eigenstate.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, offering hints and exploring different methods to approach the solution. There is a recognition of the relationship between the modified wave function and the original Schrödinger equation, indicating a productive direction in the discussion.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on not assuming the wave function is initially an energy eigenstate, which may influence the approach to solving the problem. The original poster expresses uncertainty and seeks guidance without requesting a complete solution.

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1. Suppose a constant potential energy,Vo, independent of x and t is added to a particle's potential energy. Show that this adds a time-dependent phase factor, [tex]e^{-iV_ot/\hbar}[/tex]Right now I'm completely lost. Here's what I think so far:

2.
[tex]i\hbar\frac{d\Psi}{dt} = \frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2\Psi}{dx^2} + V(x)\Psi[/tex]


As I said, I'm lost(Maybe I'm just to tired.) I added in the constant Potential Energy Term and that changes the Shrodinger Eq. like so:



3.[tex]i\hbar\frac{d\Psi}{dt} = \frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2\Psi}{dx^2} + V(x)\Psi + V_o\Psi[/tex]

Now I'm stuck. As I write this I'm thinking about moving the constant term to the time side, separating ans solving the time side, since I know the answer is Time-dependent. Is this the right way to proceed? I'm not asking for a solution to the problem, just a hint about where to go. For reference this is problem 1.8 out of Griffith. Thank-you for any hints you can give me. I really appreciate it. If I need to show more work tell me and If I have accomplished anything else I will post it.
 
Last edited:
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You know [tex]\psi(x,t)[/tex] satisfies the Schrödinger equation without [tex]V_0[/tex], I would see what equation [tex]\psi(x,t) e^{-iV_0 t/\hbar}[/tex] satisfies. Hint: take a time derivative and use the equation satisfied by [tex]\psi[/tex].
 
Ok I think I may have got it. I did what I said and solved the time side with the new Potential Energy component. and The Timedependent part of [tex]\Psi[/tex] becomes:

[tex]e^{Ct}e^{-iV_ot/\hbar}[/tex] Does this look correct?
 
I'll try what you said monkey...
 
What I suggested is basically equivalent to what you did where your [tex]C = - i E t /\hbar[/tex] is the energy without [tex]V_0[/tex]. The difference is that with my method you don't have to assume that [tex]\psi[/tex] is originally an energy eigenstate.
 
I see I see... Thanks for your help. I went about your method PM, and I put the new psi into the SHRO. EQ. and after symplifying the SHRO EQ becomes the equation for the original Wavefunction but with the extra potential energy term added. This seems like what was supposed to happen, so thank you for your help.
 
Great, you're welcome.
 

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