MHB Stuck trying to integrate the surface area of a curve

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The discussion focuses on finding the surface area generated by revolving the curve x = (e^y + e^{-y})/2 around the y-axis from y = 0 to y = ln(2). The user initially sets up the integral for the surface area but gets stuck when trying to simplify and integrate the expression. Participants suggest expanding the integrand and applying the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (FTOC) to evaluate the integral. The user expresses confusion about integrating terms like e^(2y) and realizes the correct antiderivative is (1/2)e^(2y). The conversation concludes with the user gaining clarity on integration techniques and the importance of understanding the FTOC.
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Here's the problem I was given:

Find the area of the surface generated by revolving the curve

$$x=\frac{e^y + e^{-y} }{2}$$

from 0 $$\leq$$ y $$\leq$$ ln(2) about the y-axis.

I tried the normal route first...

g(y) = x = $$\frac{1}{2} (e^y + e^{-y})$$
g'(y) = dx/dy = $$\frac{1}{2} (e^y - e^{-y}) $$

S = $$\int 2\pi \frac{1}{2} (e^y + e^{-y}) \sqrt{1+(e^y - e^{-y})^2} dy$$

S = $$\pi \int (e^y + e^{-y}) \sqrt{\frac{1}{4}e^{2y}+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}e^{-2y} } dy$$

S = $$\pi \int (e^y + e^{-y}) \sqrt{\frac{1}{4} (e^y+e^{-y})^2} dy$$

S = $$\pi \int (e^y + e^{-y}) \frac {1}{2} (e^y+e^{-y}) dy$$

But then I got stuck here...

S = $$\frac{1}{2} \pi \int (e^y + e^{-y})^2 dy $$

How should I proceed? Thanks in advance.
 
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Hello and welcome to MHB! :D

Next, I would expand the integrand, and then apply the given limits in the FTOC...
 
Hi @MarkFL,

Thanks for the response. When you say expand the integrand, do you mean like this?

S = $$\frac{1}{2}\pi \int e^{2y} + 2 + e^{-2y}$$

If so, how do I use the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus. I know what FTOC stands for but I never learned it as a thing by itself. I was taught how to look at a problem and break it down, but the definitions weren't really a part of my curriculum. :(

I've also tried splitting it into its components after expanding it, like so:

S = $$ \frac{1}{2}\pi \int e^{2y} + \frac{1}{2}\pi \int 2 + \frac{1}{2}\pi \int e^{-2y} $$

But then I get stuck trying to integrate even $$ e^{2y} $$ by itself.

S = $$ \frac{1}{2}\pi \frac{1}{3y} e^{3y} $$ ?
 
Last edited:
What you actually have is:

$$S=\frac{\pi}{2}\int_{0}^{\ln(2)} e^{2y}+2+e^{-2y}\,dy$$

The anti-derivative form of the FTOC states that if $f(x)$ is continuous on $[a.b]$:

$$\int_a^b f(x)\,dx=F(b)-F(a)$$

where $$F'(x)=f(x)$$.

So, you need to find the anti-derivative and then evaluate it at the upper limit, and then subtract from this the evaluation at the lower limit.
 
MarkFL said:
So, you need to find the anti-derivative and then evaluate it at the upper limit, and then subtract from this the evaluation at the lower limit.

Oh, okay. I know how to do that. The trick is anti-deriving with a variable in the exponent. For example, if I expand it and then split it into three integrands and try tackle each one by itself, I trip up on the first one: $$ e^{2y} $$.

The best I can come up with is:

$$ \frac{1}{2 \ln{2} +1} e^{2 \ln{2} +1 } $$

Which I don't think is a "legal move" in calculus. Is it?

EDIT: Wait... now, I get it. I forgot how much I hate working with e, sometimes. The antiderivative of $$ e^{2y} [/MATH} is $$ \frac{1}{2} e^{2y} $$, not some twisted $$ \frac{1}{2y+1}e^{2y+1} $$ like I was thinking...
 
Last edited:
There's really no need to break it up into three integrals (although you can).

If you have the indefinite integral:

$$\int e^{ax}\,dx$$ where $a$ is a non-zero constant, use the substitution:

$$u=ax$$

What do you need for your new differential to be and how can you get it?
 
Its not that difficult to remember the slightly more general formula
\int e^{ax}dx= \frac{1}{a}e^{ax}+ C
 
Thanks @MarkFL and @HallsofIvy, I'll add that to my mental cheatsheet for antiderivatives. :)
 

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