Summation of an infinite series

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SUMMARY

The infinite series $\displaystyle \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^{n} \arctan \left( \frac{1}{2n+1} \right)$ converges to $\arctan \left( \text{tanh} \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \right)$. The discussion highlights the use of complex logarithms and trigonometric identities to transform the series into a non-alternating form. Key transformations include the representation of the series as $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2(2n+1)^{2}}\right)$ and the application of the formula $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{2xy}{(2n+1)^{2}-x^{2}+y^{2}}\right)=\tan^{-1}\left(\tan\left(\frac{{\pi}x}{2}\right)\tanh\left(\frac{{\pi}y}{2}\right)\right)$ with $x=y=1/2$.

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  • Understanding of infinite series and convergence
  • Familiarity with the arctangent function and its properties
  • Knowledge of complex logarithms and their applications
  • Basic trigonometric identities and transformations
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  • Study the properties of the arctangent function in depth
  • Learn about the convergence criteria for infinite series
  • Explore the relationship between trigonometric functions and complex numbers
  • Investigate advanced techniques for summing series, particularly using logarithmic identities
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Show that $\displaystyle \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^{n} \arctan \left( \frac{1}{2n+1} \right) = \arctan \Bigg( \text{tanh} \Big( \frac{\pi}{4} \Big) \Bigg)$.I'm tempted to give a hint (or two) right off the bat. But I'll wait.
 
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Random Variable said:
Show that $\displaystyle \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^{n} \arctan \left( \frac{1}{2n+1} \right) = \arctan \Bigg( \text{tanh} \Big( \frac{\pi}{4} \Big) \Bigg)$.I'm tempted to give a hint (or two) right off the bat. But I'll wait.

Would the hınt dırect one ın the towards of the exponentıal representatıon of tan and the use of logs by any chance?

CB
 
CaptainBlack said:
Would the hınt dırect one ın the towards of the exponentıal representation of tan and the use of logs by any chance?

CB
Yes, I was going to suggest representing the inverse tangent using the complex logarithm, but in a simpler way than it's usually represented. But I was also going to suggest using a trig identity to first write the series in a different form so that's it's not an alternating series.
 
Hi RV. Cool problem.$$\frac{\pi}{4}-\tan^{-1}(1/3)+tan^{-1}(1/5)-\tan^{-1}(1/7)+\cdot\cdot\cdot$$

$$\left(\frac{\pi}{4}+\tan^{-1}(1/5)+\tan^{-1}(1/9)+\cdot\cdot\cdot\right) -\left(\tan^{-1}(1/3)+tan^{-1}(1/7)+\tan^{-1}(1/11)+\cdot\cdot\cdot \right)$$

This can now be written as:

$$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\left[\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4n+1}\right)-\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4n+3}\right)\right]$$
$$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\left[\tan^{-1}(4n+3)-\tan^{-1}(4n+1)\right]$$

$$=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{8n^{2}+8n+2}\right)$$

$$=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2(2n+1)^{2}}\right)$$

Now, we can use the formula:

$$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{2xy}{(2n+1)^{2}-x^{2}+y^{2}}\right)=\tan^{-1}\left(\tan(\frac{{\pi}x}{2})\tanh(\frac{{\pi}y}{2})\right)$$

Now, let $$x=y=1/2$$ in the formula and we arrive at:

$$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2(2n+1)^{2}}\right)=\tan^{-1}\left(\tanh(\frac{\pi}{4})\right)$$

The formula above is derived by using the argument of

$$\cos(\pi z)=\prod_{k=0}^{\infty}\left(1-\frac{4z^{2}}{(2k+1)^{2}}\right)$$

$$\cos(\pi z)=\cos(\pi x)\cosh(\pi y)+\sin(\pi x)\sinh(\pi y)i$$.

and by noting that $$\text{arg}\prod(a+bi)=\sum \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{b}{a}\right)$$
 
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